Spanish language Q&A Forum

why are "they are always eating chocolate" "Ellos siempre están comiendo chocolato", and not "Ellos siempre está comiendo chocolato"?

This lesson says «present tense is used to talk about the past event», which is fine, in English too it happens.

However, there is another lesson in C1, «simple future or conditional tenses are also used» to talk about the past event.

Can someone please explain when to use the present tense, and when to use simple future/conditional to talk about the past event? Or, in the same situation, present tense and future/conditional tense is inter-changeable??

Hola! Necesito un poco de ayuda con una frase. No entiendo porque en esta frases ''A continuación, agregue tomates triturados, alcaparras, aceitunas, una hoja de laurel y el bacalao desmenuzado a la sartén'' decimos ''a la sartén'' en lugar de ''en la sartén''. Gracias! :-)

I am studying Latin Am Spanish and my Mexican teacher told me that preterite perfect is used to describe past experiences (even those finished in the past) AI confirms this : Visité México" is the simple past tense (preterite) and is used for actions that were completed in the past. If you're saying "I visited Mexico" as a specific event that happened, this is the way to go.

"He visitado México" is the present perfect tense and is used to talk about actions that were completed at some indefinite point in the past and have relevance to the present. If you're expressing that you've visited Mexico at some time in your life up to now, this is a good choice.

So it comes down to whether you're highlighting a specific past event (Visité) or a general experience up to now (He visitado). Got another language question? I’m here for it.

You should just ask a straight up question and not try to fool us. 

Quien ama la naturaleza sabe vivir en un entorno humano.

The question asks for the translation for "she loves him."  You need to change the tense.

I have noticed that the word “video” is pronounced differently in Spain and Latin America.  In Latin America, the word is pronounced as 3 syllables and the accent is on the “e” (2nd or middle syllable).  In contrast, in Spain the word seems to be pronounced with the accent on the “i” (1st syllable) and it seems like the word may only have 2 syllables in the peninsular pronunciation (with the “eo” pronounced as a one syllable diphthong).  Is this correct, and if not, what is going on here?