Spanish language Q&A Forum

Sometimes I hear, for instance, “I am dancing”, as estoy bailando.  Other times I hear, bailo.  I’ve had both marked incorrect in different instances.  So what is normally spoken?  It is confusing.

isn't this first answer supposed to be "he gustado", since it is first person singular?  And isn't the second answer supposed to be he interesado for the same reason?

I need to have my eyes tested.  The correct answer is "Me necesitan hacer una revisión de ojos."  But for some reason that just sounds odd to me.  I could understand "Me revisáron los ojos" as meaning "I got my eyes checked" -- something that got done to me by some un-named third party.  But it just sounds weird to say "me necesitan" something.  I guess because the other examples deal with having something done to me, and this example relates to the third party have a state of mind or need.  Is this format with necesitar common?

What does that expression mean?

I am studying Latin Am Spanish and my Mexican teacher told me that preterite perfect is used to describe past experiences (even those finished in the past) AI confirms this : Visité México" is the simple past tense (preterite) and is used for actions that were completed in the past. If you're saying "I visited Mexico" as a specific event that happened, this is the way to go.

"He visitado México" is the present perfect tense and is used to talk about actions that were completed at some indefinite point in the past and have relevance to the present. If you're expressing that you've visited Mexico at some time in your life up to now, this is a good choice.

So it comes down to whether you're highlighting a specific past event (Visité) or a general experience up to now (He visitado). Got another language question? I’m here for it.

Are there any guidelines for the use of the phrase '' ''los demás'' versus ''los otros''  this? Many thanks

I understand that when "tal vez" and "quizas" are used, they can be followed by either subjunctive or indicative mood.  But "a lo mejor" only accepts indicative mood.  And, since "tal vez", "quizas", and "a lo mejor" can all be translated as "maybe" in English, this creates some confusion for English speakers.  My question is this: even though they are all tranlated as "maybe" in english, does the phrase "a lo mejor" convey less doubt/uncertainty than "tal vez/quizas" in spanish?

I was doing one of the writing exercises and the sentence given was, "I decided to wait and see if a car passed by to call for help." I figured the translation of "passed by" would be "pasera" (past subjunctive), but the answer given was "pasaba." Why wouldn't we need to use subjunctive here since it's uncertain whether a car will actually pass by?

thank you for this article. I learned many new things.