Why is costar used without a pronoun to express something people in general find difficult, while other words DO use a pronoun to express general things, as explained in the "The impersonal se in Spanish" lesson?

Lesson - The impersonal se in Spanish:
Expressing instructions and general statements in Spanish with the impersonal se = one

Asked 1 year ago

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Per-Olof F.B1Kwiziq community member

Spanish vs English vs Swedish

My native language is Swedish. In all the above examples we would also use the infinitive. If this was a course for Swedish speaking people, this lesson would be unnecessary! Is Spanish grammar generally more similar to Swedish grammar than to English grammar? I don't know, but probably not.

This was just a reflection, not a question that I expect to be answered.

Asked 1 year ago

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Ashlyn T.A1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

same or different as quedarse

how is this different from quedarse? quedarse is also the state resulted from a change..

Asked 3 years ago

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Shoji M.C1Kwiziq community member

In Spanish «sino» is also correct to say 'except', right?

Could someone please tell me why I was told it's wrong here in this quiz?

Kqiziq (B1): El año pasado visité todas las ciudades de Cataluña ___________ Tarragona (Last year I visited all the cities in Catalonia except for Tarragona).

The options given: menos/sino/pero/aunque/incluso.

I chose «sino», and I was marked wrong. The correct answer was «menos». I, of course, accept «menos», but why is «sino» wrong here??

Asked 1 year ago

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D. A.A2Kwiziq community member

Can you provide the conjugation of the verb saber in Present, Preterite and Imperfect foms

Asked 2 years ago

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Ron D.B1Kwiziq community member

The explanation and sample appear incorrect.

In this example:

La familia de María está contenta. María's family are happy. [U.S: is happy]

Está is singular, so wouldn't it also be translated as "is"?