Spanish language Q&A Forum

What is the difference between para la que and para el que.

Can someone please explain when we cannot use either of the two.

Gracias!

The examples all list a couple actions that are being requested or suggested.  Would it be just as normal to use it when there is just a single action being requested?  Like "Pones los papeles sobre la mesa" would sound as normal as a command as "Pon los papeles sobre la mesa"?  As a non-native speaker, if I talked that way would people think I don't know the imperative?

In There Will Be Blood:

Yo me bebo tu batido.  ¡Me lo bebo entero!

"El hemisferio meridional" is an accepted (though perhaps less common) equivalent of "southern hemisphere." Perhaps it could be added as a correct answer. 

Hi and thanks for all your work. This is a good breakdown however I still remain confused when two nouns  don't require - de- between them

For example in a book I'm reading " el êpico fracas de Arturo Zamora" Theres a part that that says

Consejo ciudadano. ( citizen council)

This isn't the first time two nouns are next to each other without a " De" inbetween  but I don't see the difference between this and something like

La sopa de Pollo

I was doing one of the writing exercises and the sentence given was, "I decided to wait and see if a car passed by to call for help." I figured the translation of "passed by" would be "pasera" (past subjunctive), but the answer given was "pasaba." Why wouldn't we need to use subjunctive here since it's uncertain whether a car will actually pass by?

In view of the explanation of "ir" vs. "irse" in this lesson, how would one contrast "irse" vs. "salir"

As with the majority of these writing options, how about including common Latin American  options like el carro, manejar, and ¡Qué ganga! for this exercise.

I greatly appreciate all the hard work in making up these exercises, and adding the options for Latin American speakers would make this site and these exercises even better.