Spanish language Q&A Forum

I am confused by when to use éstas with a tilde and when not to.  And would this sentence work without using either?  Just saying ...zonas de ocio sino que también permiten a la población...

Which tenses do these 3 forms represent? I suppose one is the usual conditional tense

Hola

¡Lo que charla tu madre! 

y

¡Cuánto charla tu madre! 

estas frases son intercambiables? significan más o menos lo mismo?

(no importa, veo que esta pregunta ya ha sido hecha)

For this question:

"El guiso solo necesita una pizca de sal. No pongas ____ "

I couldn't decide whether it should be "tantas" or "tanta" because it wasn't clear to me at all whether the pronoun is referring to "una pizca" or "sal". If I recall correctly I put "tantas", attempting to agree with "una pizca" but it was the wrong answer. Is it possible that both might be acceptable in real world speech because of that ambiguity, or am I missing some clear difference?

(e.g. in English "This stew only needs one pinch of salt. Don't put too many" would sound a bit wrong, but technically would be correct for the same reason, in my opinion. Of course you'd usually hear "This stew only needs *a* pinch of salt. Don't put too much.". While salt is an uncountable noun (in most contexts), "pinch" is, of course, not!)

Hi all!

I am trying to understand my Spanish textbook better. One of the vocab phrases is "faltar mucho tiempo para", which the book translates to mean "to have much time left" in english. Also they define "faltar poco tiempo" as meaning "to be short of time for". I thought faltar meant "to miss" so I am just confused on both of these translations and what faltar means in this context.