Spanish language Q&A Forum
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5,924 questions • 9,691 answers • 981,335 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,924 questions • 9,691 answers • 981,335 learners
Vosotros is used because the speaker is talking to more than one person.
Also, i read that vos (singular) is only used in Latin America.
In the following sentence: "No dejes que Marcos te convenza. Es un embaucador."
Why is convenzas not correct? Doesn't the "te" trigger the tú conjugation?
Gracias, Augustine
In the example,
El armario es dificil de montar, can you say (difícil a montar)?
Is that acceptable in any situation?
Un amigo espanol me dejó que "La mujer con la que está hablando" es correctecto pero "La mujer con quien está hablando" no es correcto. Puedes explicar la diferencia?
Have just realised that all 8 lessons Kwiziq recently added to my study plan all say for South American learners in red at the top of the first page. I am learning European which Kwiziq acknowledges. I’m not sure what to do!
Greetings!
Minor comment: your word bank at the beginning of the exercise included the word "pellizco". The exercise used "pizca". I assume that they are interchangable?
My Spanish verbs book was silent on the verb, "cocer", also my Spanish-English dictionary, so I looked it up online.
Love learning new words. Thank you for exposing us to them.
Kaly
In There Will Be Blood:
Yo me bebo tu batido. ¡Me lo bebo entero!
Hizo su examen antes de haber repasado. The meaning of the English translation is not clear. I’m thinking that a better translation in American English would be “He took his exam before having reviewed.”
I understand that “vestir” needs to be used because it is a transitive verb requiring a direct object, but why is “se” used which I believe would indicate that it is a reflexive verb?
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