Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,108 questions • 10,005 answers • 1,050,202 learners
Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,108 questions • 10,005 answers • 1,050,202 learners
The sing-songy intonation that he gives to everything he reads is distracting and seems completely unrealistic. Nobody that I've ever heard talks like that, and it makes the listening exercises for which he's the reader less useful than they otherwise would be. The selections that he reads always start with a long pause, as if he needed a cue and didn't get it, and, I always cringe in anticipation of yet another tra-la-laaaaa reading to have to transcribe. Honestly, who picked this guy? And did they discover him reading for story hour in some Spanish library's kids' section?
Why is "of the mountains" not translated as "del montañas"?
En la segunda oración... ¿Solo puede ser (como dado en la traducción), o puede ser también ?
Because... the English given was "Finally we are going on a cruise" (literally, "Por fin vamos de crucero"); and of course "Por fin vamos a ir de crucero" would literally be "Finally we are going to go on a cruise". I understand that the meaning underneath the use of the present tense English translation that was given indicates a future event; I'm just hoping for clarity about the correctness or acceptability of using the present tense in Spanish in this case. Thank you!
How would you answer these questions?
¿Conoce Ud. nuestros productos gourmets? No, solamente alguno. or No solamente algunos. ¿Prefiero Ud. todos los quesos de la caja? No, solamente alguno. or No, solamente algunos. ¿Desea Ud. estas frutas frescas? No, solamente algunas. or No, solamente alguna.
Vosotros is used because the speaker is talking to more than one person.
Also, i read that vos (singular) is only used in Latin America.
My native language is Swedish. In all the above examples we would also use the infinitive. If this was a course for Swedish speaking people, this lesson would be unnecessary! Is Spanish grammar generally more similar to Swedish grammar than to English grammar? I don't know, but probably not.
This was just a reflection, not a question that I expect to be answered.
It seems as if we can think of "lo" as "that," as in, "That I don't know" for "no lo se." This seems to fit with all the examples above.
How to say to have something done with a sentence using the verb in the 3rd person plural
this is the other lesson that uses 3rd person plural verb conjugation.
I find this lesson very similar to the other and I cannot see any differences at all.
for example,
me han robado . this could be for this lesson of being impersonal but this can only be under the other lesson that something negative happened or something was done on me.
Are they actually the same thing?
"Le hemos explicado a ella el problema." Seems redundant. Is it a special case, or a constant rule?
I can't speak for Europe or Australia but I can tell you that in the U.S. no one is ever going to say, "We've seen the singer sign autographs to the fans." The correct construction for this verb is to sign autographs FOR fans...not to the fans. If I heard someone say this I would assume they were not a native speaker of English.
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level