Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the example, 

El armario es dificil de montar, can you say (difícil a montar)?

Is that acceptable in any situation?

How can I know which form of the ordinal number to use? For example, twelfth has three forms. Are there particular circumstances when one is called for in lieu of another?

Sorry for not writing in Spanish. I´m not there yet.W

why do we use preterito perfecto compuesto for 'I saw' and 'I found', i thought 'i found' would be encontre and 'I saw', yo vi not he contrado and he visto. thanks!

I am just wondering why some -ir and -erverbs use -iendo and the other take -yendo.  Does it have to do with the double vowel?  Like -uir -aer -eer? 

The phrase "not be much for" is more idiomatic and translates to "not enjoy" or "not be in the habit of". I have never heard it used in the positive, however. You might say "He's not much for taking walks" to mean "He doesn't enjoy taking walks".  However, I have never heard something like "He's much for taking walks". There's a positive version that's a bit more enthusiastic: "to be a great one for".  For example, "He's a great one for playing practical jokes".

Hola

¡Lo que charla tu madre! 

y

¡Cuánto charla tu madre! 

estas frases son intercambiables? significan más o menos lo mismo?

(no importa, veo que esta pregunta ya ha sido hecha)

Hi, I also have a similar doubt. We are using sere in first example ( When I am older, I will be a doctor) i.e simple future but we are using vayan (subjunctive) in this statement:  Tendrán mucho frío cuando vayan a Escocia el próximo diciembre.

Why are we using vayan instead of iran (simple future) here like in first example?

Please help thank you!