The phrase "not be much for" is more idiomatic and translates to "not enjoy" or "not be in the habit of". I have never heard it used in the positive, however. You might say "He's not much for taking walks" to mean "He doesn't enjoy taking walks". However, I have never heard something like "He's much for taking walks". There's a positive version that's a bit more enthusiastic: "to be a great one for". For example, "He's a great one for playing practical jokes".

Asked 1 year ago

Like0Answer1

D. A.A2Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

In the 2nd question, why is not "has" indicated in the English version?

Wouldn't ¿Crees que has aprobado el examen? be "Do you think you have passed the exam?" I don't know the grammatical tense that applies, but on the face of it, it seems the "have" should be represented in the English.

Also, does Spanish have an equivalent of "do?" I think i read that it does not. In English it is often ommitted, so it's probably ok to not always include it in translations.

Asked 3 years ago

Like1Answer1

Marcos G.C1Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

Is it correct to write PRESTARLE ALGO, PEDIRLE PRESTADO ALGO

I used to see the “le” form of the infinitive used in dictionaries. Is it still correct to use this form? Thanks.

Asked 3 years ago

Like1Answer1

Johnny G.C1Kwiziq community member

'lo que' vs. 'cuánto'

Hola

¡Lo que charla tu madre!

¡Cuánto charla tu madre!

estas frases son intercambiables? significan más o menos lo mismo?

(no importa, veo que esta pregunta ya ha sido hecha)

Asked 1 year ago

Like1Answer1

v m.A1Kwiziq community member

Which ordinal to use

How can I know which form of the ordinal number to use? For example, twelfth has three forms. Are there particular circumstances when one is called for in lieu of another?

Sorry for not writing in Spanish. I´m not there yet.W

Asked 1 year ago

Like0Answer1

Stuart M.B1Kwiziq community member

"Those who"

Would it also be possible to use "Esos que" in this context?

Asked 2 years ago

Like0Answer1