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5,924 questions • 9,691 answers • 981,316 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,924 questions • 9,691 answers • 981,316 learners
I understand that “vestir” needs to be used because it is a transitive verb requiring a direct object, but why is “se” used which I believe would indicate that it is a reflexive verb?
I am .unable to create accents on my keyboard. Have tried all recommended methods, none work.
am losing points.
Should la mayoría be followed by son? La mayoría isnt plural.
i am confused. there is another lesson that uses deber in perfect tense and deber in present + haber to indicate assumption that something must have happened that is expressed by the main verb as infinitive or past participle. This lesson seems to be speaking of the same thing until the last part that says
Eso debe de haber caducado hace tiempo
That must have expired some time agoI am confused by this 2 very similar lessons. may you point out the differences to me?
how do I use such structure to say something must had been done as in an assumption in the past?
Hola
¡Lo que charla tu madre!
y
¡Cuánto charla tu madre!
estas frases son intercambiables? significan más o menos lo mismo?
(no importa, veo que esta pregunta ya ha sido hecha)
I think the verb acabar can also be used to express finishing something. How does the use of acabar in Spanish differ when I want to say "I just..." vs. "I'm finishing..."
Wow! Question. How does: "en qué momento se me habrá ocurrido" come to mean: "I'm wondering why I thought this was a good idea"?
Is it a standard phrase for "Me pregunto por qué pensé que era una buena idea?"
Would "en qué momento pensé que era una buena idea?"work?
Hi and thanks for all your work. This is a good breakdown however I still remain confused when two nouns don't require - de- between them
For example in a book I'm reading " el êpico fracas de Arturo Zamora" Theres a part that that says
Consejo ciudadano. ( citizen council)
This isn't the first time two nouns are next to each other without a " De" inbetween but I don't see the difference between this and something like
La sopa de Pollo
I am studying Latin Am Spanish and my Mexican teacher told me that preterite perfect is used to describe past experiences (even those finished in the past) AI confirms this : Visité México" is the simple past tense (preterite) and is used for actions that were completed in the past. If you're saying "I visited Mexico" as a specific event that happened, this is the way to go.
"He visitado México" is the present perfect tense and is used to talk about actions that were completed at some indefinite point in the past and have relevance to the present. If you're expressing that you've visited Mexico at some time in your life up to now, this is a good choice.
So it comes down to whether you're highlighting a specific past event (Visité) or a general experience up to now (He visitado). Got another language question? I’m here for it.
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