Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,761 questions • 9,395 answers • 934,135 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,761 questions • 9,395 answers • 934,135 learners
Probably not.
In the last sentence, the word "ojalá" has the accent in the wrong place.
Hi Inma,
The translation is given as “every journey has become a thrilling (?) adventure.” If convertirse (en) is the verb of choice here for “become”, would it have been better to give a different translation perhaps “every journey has turned into a thrilling adventure.”
It strikes me that “convertirse en” just doesn’t fit with your lesson where you say that it is used to describe “A radical change in personality or profession,” and is interchangeable with “hacerse” in that regard. Hence a different translation would have steered me towards either “convertirse en” or “volverse” [which is what I chose]. That said, your lessons on this topic deal with people becoming a certain way, rather than situations changing. Perhaps the guidance for the former cannot be carried through to the latter. Can you clarify this in any way? Saludos. John
Hi,
Quick question about the above sentence. Could the word order be the same as in English i.e. la tension... se notó mucho?
Best regards,
Colin
Hola,
My online translator gives 'el campo nos aburre' for 'the countryside bores me'.
Is this an acceptable translation?
Thanks.
Saludos,
Colin
Hi and thanks for all your work. This is a good breakdown however I still remain confused when two nouns don't require - de- between them
For example in a book I'm reading " el êpico fracas de Arturo Zamora" Theres a part that that says
Consejo ciudadano. ( citizen council)
This isn't the first time two nouns are next to each other without a " De" inbetween but I don't see the difference between this and something like
La sopa de Pollo
When referring to objects, would you always use 'el' instead of 'lo'?
Why doesn't "Lo de estilo victoriano me parece más valioso" work?
I wonder why a "to" is shown after "to tend." Since the examples have an infinitive after a conjugated "tend," it seems the extra "to" is superfluous.
I answered this as "estan pidiendo"
But the exam says the right answer is "piden".
Isn't "estan pidiendo" more accurate answer?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level