Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi, I was a bit surprised to see this use of "gustar" as none of the books I have mention this usage i.e. Barron's 501 verbs, shows only that this verb is  used in the third person, etc.    Would it be a Iberian usage?  I am in Canada and study Latin American Spanish [looking forward to that distinction in your program:) -- any news on that?]

Thank you. Nicole

Re: Sentence above: 

No, no me gusta la paella.No, I do not like paella.

In the lesson above, I was surprised to hear how the word "paella" was pronounced.  I had never heard that pronunciation.  My question is, are the letters "ae" considered a diphthong, and if so, what would be its pronunciation?

Thank you and wishing you a great day!

Nicole

Instead of just adding "Me llamo", I wrote "me llamo Juan" inadvertently giving the answer "Me llamo Juan Juan". This is accidental! Yet Kwiziq marks it incorrect! Almost certainly, this would never occur in a practical situation.

Also when using my tablet, I sometimes miss out a question by accident. Kwiziq should prompt that all the questions have not been answered. This is also accidental! Yet Kwiziq marks it incorrect! 

If you are also an elderly man? Can you use "¿Cómo estás?" when greeting Gerardo?

HI- It might be helpful to also clarify that you don't use a possessive when speaking of part of your body. For example: as shown above, "My leg hurts" would be translated as  "THE leg hurts me" "Me duele LA pierna" ,

NOT as we would more commonly say in English, "My leg hurts me" "Me duele MI pierna".

One of the questions is: .(fill in)....los regalos ella sopló las velas. One of the correct answers is "Antes de recibir Ana". De complete sentence sounds odd to me, is it correct?

I would translate quería as I wanted or was wanting.  Thank you.

Hello, why is suficiente after comida ? thanks !