Spanish language Q&A Forum

(A comment, not a question; I made a mistake in my translation, and I now see why I went wrong) >

I had to scratch my head a bit to see why there is no tilde in 'cuando' in the sentence [in the text]:
"Aún recuerdo cuando teníamos que revelar los carretes" [= I still remember when we had to develop rolls of film ...]

-- particularly after noticing the example: "No recuerdo cómo tomas el té ..." [= I can't remember how you take your tea ...] -- in: Difference between cómo and como in Spanish (with and without an accent)

I now realise that, in order to carry the tilde, the 'cuándo' or the 'cómo' must be part of an indirect question - which is indeed the case with the second example, but not the first.

Inma, Shui and Silvia - you do indeed provide us with interesting and useful exercises and explanations: Keep up the good work!

I answered both questions, but did not see any opportunity to register my second answer - and see whether I had been correct.

Hello,

I would like to  know that in sentences like' Nosotros estamos en Uruguay esta semana' is it essential to write the Nosotros ? Wouldn't starting with estamos itself indicate 'We are'?.Similarly for the other sentence Vosotros estaís aburridos.....the conjugated verb form itself indicates that it is referring to vosotros. Please clarify.

Thanks

Alka

I see quite some time has been devoted to this subject.  The first time I read the hairdresser example, the English struck me as quite wrong.  I would add my two cents as follows: 

If I went to the hairdresser, I'd spend a lot of money or If I went (had gone) to the hairdresser, I would have spent a lot of money.

Those seem to me to be the simplest way to correct it because one can't correctly say I would spent.    

.

Is it possible to omit "Las" or use "unas" instead? Thank you. 

In the writing exercise "Everlasting Love in Caazapá" [B2], I used the alternative form for the passive by writing: "Sus aguas están conocidas por todos los lugareños"...[Inma explained this at https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/questions/view/passive-with-estar ] However, I failed to apply the rule later when I answered (and was corrected): "Es como si estas aguas *fuesen* benditas" [< which is wrong]; should be "... estuvieran benditas" … I could of course have got a clue from the use of 'benditas' (the irregular past participle, which is more like an adjective) instead of 'bendecidas'. Perhaps one might also say? - "Es como si estas aguas hubiesen sido bendecidas", although that refers to the distant past: "... had been blessed".

Hi room

Why do we use por que and not para que in the sentence 'Puse todo de mi parte por que no termináramos separados'

The subtlety of this concept is lost on me.  Can you explain in more detail the difference between these two sentences, please.

Hacía unos meses que trabajaba con su padre.
He had been working with his dad for a few months.

Trabajaba en la empresa desde hacía tres años.
He had been working in the company for 3 years.

The test asked to translate "I like white wine" to Spanish, but indicated "Me gusta el vino blanco" was the correct answer. The English sentence seemed unspecific to me, as though the speaker was making a general statement about a category of wine they liked. To add an article seems to imply the speaker likes a specific kind of wine ("I like the white wine"). Is this the same implication in Spanish? Could one say "me gusta vino blanco"? Or is an article always required, and unspecific preferences would require "un/una"?

Thank you.

¿Sería el mismo decir "la clínica de libros" como "el consultorio de libros"? ¿Son sinónimos?