Spanish language Q&A Forum

This is more of a complaint that a question. There is confusion in tense nomenclature. What is often referred to here as Pretérito Perfecto is really Pretérito Perfecto Compuesto.  

The Pretérito Perfecto Simple is referred to Pretérito Indefinido.  The action in the Pretérito Perfecto Simple has definitely been "perfected".   When doing quizzes quickly I often make a mistake when the Pretérito Perfecto is asked for. It would be nice if a uniform terminology were used in the teaching of Spanish

Desde dos años vs hace dos años, which one to use over the other ? Both means the same doesn’t it ? How to answer the test correctly then ?

In this example, the subject (in English) of the sentence (todas las chicas) precedes the verb in the first sentence, but follows the verb (todas) in the second sentence. Would it be acceptable to place the subject before the verb in the second sentence so that it reads: "No, no a todas les gusta."? 

are both these correct

¿Recordáis esa canción?

¿vos acordáis de esa canción?

I put 'en mitad de' and was marked wrong. According to your lesson on that topic they are sinónimos.

Please clarify

Gracias

So here, quemar is indicative. Would the subjunctive queme also be acceptable in this sentence? Or does the si prompt indicative only?

(Translation for the interested: Dalí would say that if the Prado Museum burned down, he would save only this painting.)

What is the problem with either Pónselos allí OR Se los pon allí ?? Both are grammatically correct yet it seems sometimes that these "tests" go out of their way to make responses more difficult an obcure than they should be.