Spanish language Q&A Forum

¿Cómo se escribe un mandato affirmativo en forma de nosotros con un pronombre directo? ¿Incluye "s" o no? ¿Sacamos el ¨s¨ el mismo que se hace con el pronombre reflexivo ¨nos?¨

Por ejemplo: lograr y lo  (En inglés, "Let's achieve it!")

Logrémoslo? Logrémolo?

Why are there pronouns attached to the verbs in the first three examples but not in the remaining examples?   

The first and third examples are reflexive (which explains those), but what about the second one ("comerlos")?  Thanks.

Since The main differences between ser and estar include that ser is used for permanent qualities, like your name, your place of origin, and your physical appearance, while estar is used to talk about temporary situations, such as how you’re feeling right now or your location.

So why is SER used in this sentence:  Tú eras muy bueno.  - the person that you are talking to is not always good so it is not a permant state.

Ditto in the following sentence.  You are not always rich so why use SER in the following:  Vosotros erais ricos.

Forgive me. The lesson explains this very clearly, but I'm still having trouble wrapping my head around the idea that there is absolutely no difference in meaning at all between the use of el indicativo and el subjuntivo with quizá and tal vez. I had read elsewhere a lengthy discussion about how these two always triggered the subjunctive and a lo mejor always used the indicative. Most examples I've encountered seem to reflect this. I'm struggling to reconcile this seemingly conflicting information...

Is "Todos mis amigos hacen las compras aquí"  a possible alternative to "Todos mis amigos compran aquí"?

To say sth is protected, are está and es interchangeable or is one preferred than the other?