Still confusedThis still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
I think I've managed to wrap my head around how the passive works in a basic sense, but I'm wondering if anyone can offer, or refer me to, any guidance on WHEN to use different passive/impersonal forms, or how the nuances change? I know this is a rather broad question, so I'll try to narrow it down to a couple examples:
When is it prefered to use the true passive versus the se refleja form? for example, I was reading an article that said "las piedras habían sido extraídas de rocas que se formaron hace miles de millones de años." Here we have two different forms used in the same sentence! Could the writer have instead said "las piedras se habían extraído de rocas que fueron formado"--or some other combination--and if so are there different nuances?! Is one simply more formal? Or is there another specific reason the se pasiva wasn't use for one but it was used for the other?
Also, I know this is a lot at once, but I'm struggling to grasp how the use of the passive with "se" differs from the use of the "ellos" impersonal construction. For example, if a house is under construction down the street, would you say "se construye una casa" or "construyen una casa" and if both are equally valid, how are the nuances different? And are there cases where one is possible but the other isn't? For instance, I've often noticed that when the object of an action is a person rather than a thing the action is often not expressed with se--the ellos form seems to be the choice in some cases like "le robaron" (but not "se robó"?). And yet... we do have "se buscan secretarias"? I can't quite see what is going on here...
Mil gracias in advance for any help on any of these questions...
This still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
Please explain on what basis cuándo is correct here and not cuando. This looks to me like a perfectly straightforward statement of fact. No one is asking a question. In fact, this sentence is an answer to a question such as, "When will you see him again?"
Before I did this exercise I studied the difference between these verb forms and still managed to get it wrong on almost every occasion. Not only am I not progressing, I'm actually getting worse. Thanks everyone for all your kind responses and help, it's much appreciated.
But pronunciation: in the Spanish muy is the U treated as W as in ruido, cuido or is the U given strength and sounded separately. Is muy MWEE ot moo-ee or muu-ee? cuy is cwee or cuuee. I've always believed that Y is treated as another vocal. a e i o u and Y meaning that u before Y = W so muy = mwee
How would the the Lawless Spanish staff recommend that learners practice conjugations?
I still don't get the difference. Always pick the incorrect answer in quiz.
Carlos no es mi primer marido.
.Why not primero?
Oh, si la vida fuera tan simple y perfecta...
1. Instead of "para que seamos más felices", could we also say "para ser más felices"? - because the subject is the same in the two clauses?
2. With "Ojalá", you point us towards the lesson Using ojalá + the present subjunctive to express hope (El Presente de Subjuntivo) - which illustrates the use of the *present* subjunctive (when expressing a *future* idea). However, perhaps it would be worth emphasising that in this particular writing exercise ("Carmen"), the *imperfect* subjunctive has to be utilised because the speaker is not really referring to the future?
3. You give "al cual que podemos transformar con los pensamientos" as a possible answer, but should the "que" not be removed? - (or if it is permissible, then you should really mention that in the lesson Using preposition a and de + el que, la que, los que, las que = to/of/from/about which/who (relative pronouns) ).
4. (Something very trivial !) > 'Nuestro' has lost its "r" in the Kviziq answer given as "Todos podemos cambiar nuesto modo de pensar".
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