Spanish language Q&A Forum

Are Spanish restaurants really rated in tenedores? I would've thought that it would ha derived from Michelin stars. At least, I always assumed stars was the literal translation of whatever the French is. 

Are you saying that it's unnecessary to include the direct object pronoun or that's it's incorrect to include it? 

A mi, me gusto mucho esta cancion.  Me ayudaron muchas las letras de la cancion, tambien.  gracias...

There is a test question that goes like this: 

¿Qué viaje prefieres comprar? Prefiero ________.Which trip do you prefer to buy? That one over there.

The correct answer is "aquel". However, this doesn't make sense to me, as a trip isn't a thing you can see/touch. It's a series of connected actions (traveling from point A to B, seeing things, doing things) and as such seems more of an abstract concept or idea than a physical thing like a coat or a skirt. 

According to the lesson text, the proper use of "aquello" is when referring to an idea. As such, I would choose "aquello" as the pronoun.

Am I interpreting the use of "aquello" incorrectly, or is the answer wrong?

Small point here. Lesson states " Faltar a un lugar means not to assist" . 

To assist in English translates to AYUDAR.

Should read FALTAR A UN LUGAR means not to be present. or not to attend, in this context.

It seems to me that telling someone else that their own  car works beautifully would indicate that the knowledge is shared and thus subjunctive (funcione) but that was marked incorrect. Please clarify.

Why does árbol become arbolillo, but corazón becomes corazoncillo?  They both end in consonants.  

The explanation above says both that "If the original noun ends in a consonant, it usually keeps the last letter (árbol → arbol-illo)", but also that "when the noun ends in a consonant...we tend to keep the whole word and add -cillo, -cilla, -cillos, -cillas".  

So why isn't it arbolcillo?

Thanks!

I may have missed something here. 

Is their happiness a permanent thing? 

Shouldn't it be, "estamos más felices?"

Thanks in advance, 

Kaly

This is very poorly worded. Oír means to hear, NOT can hear NOR is able to hear, so why have you asked can hear in the question?

Now I don't know whether to use poder (conjugated) + oír or oír because I don't know whether you are asking me can hear or hear.