Spanish language Q&A Forum

If I want to say:  "You bought more than enough"

Is there any significant difference between:

Compraste más que suficiente

and 

Compraste más que bastante

or are they essentially synonymous?

I am confused- the present participle in English is used in both the despues de + infinitive and the gerundio.  It’s hard to differentiate between the two in English so it’s guesswork in Spanish…

I can't seem to get it right.

No me queda mucho dinero ________ tengo para dos cervezas más.

How come this should be 'pero'. I thought it was a substitute. First clause is negative and replaced by another, positive clause, hence I thought 'sino que'. Can one please point me to the critical part that would make me understand the difference? I feel so dumb.

Thank you in advance!

Using the pluperfect subjunctive in hypothetical clauses (si) followed by the perfect conditional/ the pluperfect subjunctive

I have answered these questions correctly many, many times and I can't get 100%. I was at 92% but after answering correctly ten times it took me back to 88%. Please check?

Above the Q&A form is this statement: This lesson is already in your notebook. Go to your notebook now to kwiz this topic as many times as you like.  When I click to go to my notebook to do the short kwiz again I am not able to do the kwiz again. The opportunity never comes. There is a problem with the program.

I shouldn’t have been marked wrong by answering 2 questions just because I entered the word into the box that is to the right of the box. 

I heard, 'los pueblos mas bonitos' but the given answer was 'del concurso'.