Spanish language Q&A Forum

I've read so many times about the difference between these tenses but It's like banging my head against a wall. "el taxi LLEGÓ veinte minutos tarde y el taxista ERA muy antipático. The taxi driver was unfriendly in the imperfect tense in the same taxi that arrived late in the preterite tense. This is so difficult. 

I just reviewed the A1 lesson on veces/vez in which "sometimes" equals "algunas veces," but in examples above, "sometimes" equals "a veces." Is there a difference? Is "a veces" simply a more convenient way of saying "algunas veces?" Thank you.

Hola 

If you wanted to say we like to run, would you still use 'gusta'? I.e. Nos gusta correr? and the same with Se gusta correr and Os gusta correr? 

Gracias :)

La vendimia comienza en el antiguo Egipto. Por qué no el pretérito comenzó?

I noticed that "lunch" was turned into a noun in the English translation. That really is not necessary because every English speaker is familiar with "lunch" being used as a verb. It is not common, but not improper or unknown. If Spanish speakers think of it as a verb, then it can only help learners to think of it as a verb as well, no?

Hola Inma,

why the personal "a" is omitted here? - representar a las mujeres 

Saludos

Ελισάβετ

Why does Aunque SEA por uno minutos or Aunque ESTEMOS encerrados use subjunctive?

Preferir... que... just means: prefer... than... .Doesn't it?

Preferir... en vez de... means: prefer... rather than.... Why? I don't understand.

Thank you so much