Spanish language Q&A Forum

Instead of translating the English as a negation, translating it "as if you knew how to make a fried egg!" (for example), it's still completely clear that the response is meant to imply that the other person does *not* know how to fry an egg. I don't think this even qualifies as sarcasm.

I like to think that if neither the speaker nor the listener can SEE what they are talking about, then we use allí.  Would this work?

Marcos

El padre le da la receta a la señorita. Senorita was the indirect object noun, why add to “le” in front of the da？And,：Qué le hace el médico al enfermo? Enfermo was also the indirect object noun, why add to “le”?

And, ：Le receta el médico al enfermo unas pastillas? Enfermo was also the indirect object noun, why add to “le”?

“María’s family are happy” is given as the translation to “La familia de María está contenta”. 

This didn’t sound right to me so I googled and found this- https://style.mla.org/verbs-with-collective-nouns/

The reference would suggest that the translation should be ”María’s family is happy” as the members of the family are in agreement. 

Any comments would be helpful. Thank you. 

So ¿cómo está? is an incorrect answer for a child?

Don't remember ever hearing that one, only that it is okay to use the informal version with them.

Also you site is jumping past questions when I give the answer to a previous question, I know I should notice but your site shouldn't do that either.

It's happened a couple of time and I think I've done well on a test only to find out I didn't answer a couple of the questions.

Also there are drop downs that don't show some of the answer and lo and behold one of them is apparently the correct answer, which only confuses me because I end up picking the best sounding incorrect answer.

Hi.... how do you choose between habia (etc) and hubiera/hubiese (etc).  What are these called? Thanks in advance

When using "a tan solo de que", is the verb in the subordinate clause in the subjunctive?