Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi Inma, a suggestion, give an example with decir. Or would this be incorrect? E.g. Le dijo a ella. He told her. (She is affected in some way by him telling her). 

"Estoy estudiando matemáticas, lenguas y ciencias."

¿Por qué se usa la forma plural en esta lista de temas?  

In the example below, why is it 'aprovechó' and not 'se aprovechó de'? It seems quite a negative context to me, and the context even seems to be leading us towards using the reflexive form by saying 'el muy egoísta'. 

Rafa, [being] such an idiot, took advantage of the moment to break up with me. : Rafa, el muy egoísta, ___ la ocasión para romper conmigo.

In this example, "No me gusta nada ir de compras" why the preposition DE after the word NADA was omitted? 

Hola,

The sentence above was the answer to a recent question.

I don't understand the need for nosotros.  Could you please explain.

Muchas gracias.

Saludos,

Colin

I've read so many times about the difference between these tenses but It's like banging my head against a wall. "el taxi LLEGÓ veinte minutos tarde y el taxista ERA muy antipático. The taxi driver was unfriendly in the imperfect tense in the same taxi that arrived late in the preterite tense. This is so difficult. 

Me cancelaron el viaje, cosa que me fastidió mucho.

They cancelled my trip, which annoyed me a lot.

this sentence uses cosa que in the middle of the sentence

the notes state otherwise using la cosa que and it says only for beginning of the sentence not middle

am i right to conclude, cosa que = lo que in the middle of the sentence, whereas la cosa que = lo que in the beginning of the sentence.

can i also further conclude below

Le encantan los documentales de historia, cosa que/que/lo que/lo cual (yo) encuentro aburrido = I find [the fact] that she loves history documentaries boring.

cosa que/que/lo que/lo cual are all interchangeable and replacement with no change in the meaning in the middle of the sentence?

la cosa que/lo que for the beginning of the sentence.

The following two sentences use the indirect pronoun 'le' before the verb. Why is 'le' necessary in these cases? Is it considered incorrect if it's removed? Examples with and without 'le' are below. 

1. Tú les das vino a mis abuelos.

2. Ella le muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre. 

I've heard native speakers omitting 'le' in similar sentence constructions, but I'm unsure if it's correct to do so or not. 

1. Tú das vino a mis abuelos.

2. Ella muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre.