Spanish language Q&A Forum

Is this course teaching the Spanish spoken in Spain or the Spanish spoken in Mexico?

Two sentences from today's lessons for me:

1. ?Vosotras pudisteis reservar ese hotel tan barato?

2. Lo he visto a él primero, y después de ella.

In both sentences, the accented stress on the recording is on the last syllable of the last word. I like to listen to all the sentences without looking and make sure I understand what is said.  This pronunciation fools me every time.  Why is it not on the penultimate syllable?  Is this regional?

This might be way off base, but while "I" (or "yo") is the most common personal pronoun in most all languages, when one combines "it", "he", "she" and "este" etc followed by nouns, the third person singular is the most commonly used conjugation. In Kwiziq quizzes and exercises, it seems that "yo" and "tu" are the ones that show up most often. The exercises would be better if they had a proportional focus on the pronouns/conjugations in line with how frequently they are used in real life.  

I can't seem to get it right.

No me queda mucho dinero ________ tengo para dos cervezas más.

How come this should be 'pero'. I thought it was a substitute. First clause is negative and replaced by another, positive clause, hence I thought 'sino que'. Can one please point me to the critical part that would make me understand the difference? I feel so dumb.

Thank you in advance!