Spanish language Q&A Forum

I was marked wrong for answering "Nosotros LES damos juguetes a nuestros hijos" instead of just "damos" I thought that the indirect object pronoun HAD to be used. What am I missing? When should I be using it? 

Thanks.

Falta la DE, ¿no?

It seems I need to add more detail, so:

The drop-down menu for this question on forming the plural of nouns that end in -e gives four possible answers, none of which includes “de” after “especies”.

No entiendo por qué el Rey hizo eso. Él lo hizo porque quiso

Unless the Spanish have a definition of "conjunction" that differs from the one I've always understood, both "por qué" and 
"porque" are both being used as conjunctions in those sentences. It is the sense of their use which differs.

Can these two uses be distinguished in spoken Spanish and if so, how?

I understand the lesson well.However, I want to ask whether one of your sentences could have been written better.', incorporating  "Lo" from a previous lesson.. Su oración en español fue: Ayer, estuve pensando en cómo nos conocimos. Pues, yo no me  acuerdo.  ¿  lo podía ser mejor si usáramos : ...Pues, yo no lo acuerdo?

Does it mean “he doesn’t know who he’s dealing with?”

Thanks again

Shirley

Above the Q&A form is this statement: This lesson is already in your notebook. Go to your notebook now to kwiz this topic as many times as you like.  When I click to go to my notebook to do the short kwiz again I am not able to do the kwiz again. The opportunity never comes. There is a problem with the program.

As if Spanish doesn’t involve enough ambiguous distinctions (par vs. para, ser vs. estar, pretérito indefinido vs  imperfecto, etc., etc.).  Does this issue (perfecto vs. I defy) pertain to Spanish usage outside of Spain? Spoken  as well as written Spanish? Me vuelve loco.  Español es como una mujer ambigua, seductora, y mandona . Bellísima y llena de contradicciones, me vuelve loco

It seems to indicate that:

bien and mal go with estar

bueno and malo go with ser

but when I follow that as a "rule" I get it wrong. What am I missing please? What is the "reason" either goes with whatever?

Hi there, In English it would be ‘rims of the glasses’ not ‘rim of the glasses’. The sentence you have written for translation uses the singular, which is incorrect. Rims would be in the plural, not singular. In Spanish it appears the singular is used not the plural ‘frota el borde de los vasos’. Is this correct?