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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,903 questions • 9,655 answers • 971,335 learners
In the test, we are asked to translate 'Also, Ken Follet used it (to write his literary works)'. At first, I translated it as 'Ken Follet la usa', but then I noticed I was being specifically asked to construct a sentence using 'se'. Assuming a passive sentence was required, I put 'Además, se usó por Ken Follet', but was corrected with 'Además, Ken Follet la usó'. Surely, there is something not quite right here?
Hola,
The sentence above was the answer to a recent question.
I don't understand the need for nosotros. Could you please explain.
Muchas gracias.
Saludos,
Colin
So the right answer to this was marked conozco. Why isn't it conozca?
Creo que no te conozco. ¿Cómo te llamas?
(I don't think I know you well. What's your name?)
Your sample answer is “nosotros nos llamarse …… “ but you mark it as an incorrect answer in the quiz
Arreglándose para la fiesta, alguien llamó a la puerta.
While getting ready for the party, someone knocked on the door.
In English I believe this is incorrect. The gerund refers to the subject in the other sentence, so this sounds as if whoever knocked on the door was also getting ready for the party.
In Spanish if it is correct - how do we know it refers to ella? Based on context?
Hi, I noticed that this lesson link points to the -er verb version of this lesson.
And also A2 Using tanto como with verbs and nouns to say as much,many ... as (comparatives) , with adjectives is the Same lesson.
If using the indicative or subjunctive is completely interchangeable without affecting the meaning, what are the reason(s) for choosing one over the other? Can you give some examples?
"Lo de que" can be followed by the indicative or subjunctive, without changing the meaning of the sentence"It's a good job..." seems to be a bad translation. Perhaps you meant to write "it's a good thing..."
I have a Spanish grammar book that teaches this construction of the passive voice: ser + past participle + por... is this NOT correct? That same book does not mention using estar
"Fue un dia muy lindo" is describing the day and the weather. Why wouldn't it be "Era un dia my lindo"?
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