"lo ha comprado a mí." or not?

fred b.A1Kwiziq community member

"lo ha comprado a mí." or not?

There is a hole in your explanation.

You say: 

"In sentences where the indirect object is represented by "a + pronoun", and it is at the beginning of the sentence...."

but you do not explain what happens if "a + pronoun" is at the end of the sentence.

Is the indirect object pronoun required or optional in that case?

eg: Can "Me lo ha comprado a mí." be written as "lo ha comprado a mí."?

Regards,

Fred.


Asked 3 years ago
fred b. asked:

"lo ha comprado a mí." or not?

There is a hole in your explanation.

You say: 

"In sentences where the indirect object is represented by "a + pronoun", and it is at the beginning of the sentence...."

but you do not explain what happens if "a + pronoun" is at the end of the sentence.

Is the indirect object pronoun required or optional in that case?

eg: Can "Me lo ha comprado a mí." be written as "lo ha comprado a mí."?

Regards,

Fred.


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