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5,747 questions • 9,366 answers • 926,787 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,747 questions • 9,366 answers • 926,787 learners
I looked on Wiktionary and noticed that ‘prediccion ‘ means ‘prediction’ in Spanish. When I took the quiz, why was ‘pronostico’ the correct answer?
Why in the following example is ser used? I thought that the estar form would be used because cheerful is a an emotion or feeling. Wouldn't this indicate that the group is "always cheerful"?
Ustedes ________ muy alegres.
You are very cheerful.Could you please elaborate more on which condition to use feminine or masculine? For example, why not a lo francés, since it's a style, and why not a ciegos, but a ciegas? Thank you!
Hi!
So in "Si empiezas el trabajo mañana, te tocaría archivar los expedientes a primera hora", here tocaría is a conditional, so would the correct translation not be "you would have to file" Instead of "you will have to file"? Like this: "If you start work tomorrow, you would have to file the dossiers first thing."
Thank you and have a good weekend!
Why do we use the subjunctive here when something is unknown, but when we use 'aunque' it is the other way around? By that, I mean that we only use the subjunctive when the information is shared and the indicative is used to introduce new information.
Puedes ayudarme con una oración en un libro estoy leyendo….No se si el autoro usa la palabra en una manera poética or es normalmente y correcto? Trying to understand if Aturdir and irritar are normally used like the above verbs ‘ like gustar etc. The following sentence from New Penguin short stories in Spanish [ de la cuenta ‘ La Indiferencia de Eva]. Me aturden las personas muy activas y, si son mujeres, me irritan.
Sorry, i understand that hacia is sort of correct, only the accent is missing.
Puedo decir, “para conocer a uno de mis actores preferidos”, también?
If it is not part of a response or we use it as a response but not immediately after, we need "lo":"
I can see that if there is any preliminary statement in the response before a "No sé" is spoken then the "lo" should be added ("No lo sé"). But what does the phrase "If it is not part of a response" refer to?
Thanks,
John Nolan
Desde hace una semana solo estoy comiendo fruta.
Why is this wrong? I’ve only been eating fruit for a week
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