Spanish language Q&A Forum

Can we eliminate the use of "vosotros" in the Spanish - or choose a non Spain (American) version?

No se puede viajar a ese país hasta que ________ seguro.

I don't understand why this sentence is translated as ... ('we' can't travel). Wouldn't it be podemos for *we* ? I thought *puede* was singular for he/her/it

I also don't understand why the answer is *sea* and not *se*

Can someone please explain.

When do you use “de bajo de” versus just “bajo” for under? Also why does lobster not have the definite article? Thanks.

Why does árbol become arbolillo, but corazón becomes corazoncillo?  They both end in consonants.  

The explanation above says both that "If the original noun ends in a consonant, it usually keeps the last letter (árbol → arbol-illo)", but also that "when the noun ends in a consonant...we tend to keep the whole word and add -cillo, -cilla, -cillos, -cillas".  

So why isn't it arbolcillo?

Thanks!

'Estos últimos días ____ un calor terrible.' Would make me think they are in the past. today does not fit in them. or DOES it, becaus of 'Estos' ? because it talks about the last days (similar to 'last week' or 'yesterday') I presumed I had to use el indefinido (hizo), instead of the perfect (ha hecho).

Apparently I was wrong. So, please clarify, as the exact example is not identifiable in the lesson (to me at least), how I would be able to determine to use the indefinido. IS it because of 'Estos' ?

Thanks in advance!