Still confused Luis y yo no hemos roto ________ nos hemos dado un tiempo para pensar.Luis and I haven't broken up but we gave each other some time to think.
I put "pero" because this seems like new information as much as a substitution, or at least it's a very complex substitution.
BUT, one of your example sentences for "pero" is, roughly, "I can't go out tonight, but I'll go out tomorrow." In one of your earlier replies, you give this example: "Ella no puede venir hoy sino mañana. (substituting)S he can't come today but tomorrow"
I don't understand why these two seemingly interchangeable examples are given first as an example for "pero" in the main text and then as an example for "sino" in the comments.
This seems much more like a substitution, no?
Hola to whoever sees this:
RE: Exercise: Theatrical courtyards at:
https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/my-languages/spanish/exercises/judge/230/459630?response=61964&page=12
Last translation in the exercise:
and their history is interesting.
Kwizbot y su historia es interesante.
You y su historia está interesante.
I was wondering why ser is used here instead of estar.
Thank you. Nicole
Hi,
the english in this sentence comes across as a bit strange/odd. You never say" I become" etc in english .You would say "I will become" or "I would become"
I will become a vegetarian while my sister becomes a vegan
I will become a vegetarian as long as my sister becomes a vegan
I would become a vegetarian as long as/only if my sister becomes a vegan.
Luis and I haven't broken up but we gave each other some time to think.
I put "pero" because this seems like new information as much as a substitution, or at least it's a very complex substitution.
BUT, one of your example sentences for "pero" is, roughly, "I can't go out tonight, but I'll go out tomorrow." In one of your earlier replies, you give this example: "Ella no puede venir hoy sino mañana. (substituting)S he can't come today but tomorrow"
I don't understand why these two seemingly interchangeable examples are given first as an example for "pero" in the main text and then as an example for "sino" in the comments.
This seems much more like a substitution, no?
Why does árabe have two accent marks?
It seems I have considerable confusion over when to use a definite/indefinite article before a noun. I know it is needed when using gustar (e.g., me gusta el chocolate), but I have confusion in other contexts. For example, for the prompt "you need to have strong legs", I wrote necesitas tener las piernas fuertes, but the correct answer was "necesitas tener piernas fuertes" --- without the article. What's the rule on this?
My other confusion appears to be with the use of possessives. The prompt was "I'm going to exercise my muscles". I wrote voy a ejercitar los músculos but the correct answer was "voy a ejercitar mis músculos". It seems I'm confusing the rule of not using the possessive adjective as is required in such phrases as "My head is hurting" --- "Me duelo la cabeza" , or "I raise my hand" -- "Me levanto la mano". Please help me to know the difference for when I can (have) to use the possessive adjective versus when it is not used.
Thank you and I look forward to some clarity (finally) on these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
The sentence is We are going to have dinner etc.... But the infinitive verb used is salir which means to leave. Why is the verb tener not used as this doesn't make sense to me
Hi, a suggestion: “This is to preserve the hard G sound from the infinitive”. (The Spanish G sounds like the jota when it comes before an E or and I: G+E: gente (people), recoger (to collect), alegra (happy) G+I: digital (digital), girasol (sunflower), elegir (to choose)).
Shirley.
Would this be a correct sentence but with a different meaning?
Why is it "soy feliz" and not "estoy"?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level