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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,041 questions • 9,882 answers • 1,023,966 learners
why ”queria” (imperfekto)? It’s not a habit. Shouldn’t it be ”quise” (preterito)?
It’s man speaking. He says ”mi novio”. Shouldn't he say "mi novia" (unless he is gay of course)?
Le encantó su sorpresa! ?? I would expect "Me encantó su sorpresa" ??
Can't most of these time markers also be used in the present tense? Does the heading mean that if the past tense is used, then it must be the Imperfect? For people like me who are easily confused, could the heading be revised to clarify?
This is getting old with asking a question specifying two different possible answers and then allowing only one in the grading of the question. Either sabes or conoces a should be accepted. The question does not differentiate between asking if the addressee knows of the restaurant because he/she has had experience going there or if he/she has just heard about it, a big difference.
Based on the answer choices, shouldn't the mini-quiz questions "Her baby doesn't eat any fruit..." read "My baby doesn't..."?
Hi,
I was wondering why the "present" tense is used in Spanish for "llamar" which is then translated in the future tense. Why not llamaremos?
Después de la fiesta llamamos a un taxi.
After the party we will call a taxi.
Thank you.
The context seems like “i had written” which would be “había escrito” (?).
Muchas gracias
Shirley
Aunque with subjunctive when information is shared / background - why? I can't find this elsewhere, only that the subjunctive is used if the information is unimportant or irrelevant. Is this what this statement on 'shared' really means?
Your approach to address this subject is confusing. Please consider rewriting the teaching or add a new teaching in ONE lesson addressing all possibilities. Include all possible questions and answers about what date,day, month, year etc.
In the sentence "Al calentar la leche me quemé" I feel like in English we would use a comma between 'leche' and 'me' to separate the two clauses. Is this not the case in Spanish? (I might have it wrong in English.)
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