Spanish language Q&A Forum

I was directed to this (very useful !) lesson - i.e., Using tener + past participle to express the completion of an action (perífrasis verbal) - from a C1 writing exercise ["Charity Kings' Parade] - to explain the structure of this sentence: "Tengo pensado llevar un paraguas". < This is actually a bit different from the examples given in the lesson, because it is not a noun which we "tenemos pensado"; instead it is the verb "llevar" … [so no noun-agreement is required? - i.e. would we still keep the participle "pensado" unchanged if we said "Tengo pensado llevar mis botas de goma"?] … Thus, it might be useful to add, to the lesson, an example along these lines, i.e., where "Tengo pensado" is followed immediately by a verb.

En esta lección Yo pienso que hay un ejemplo de una pronunciación que no está correcta. Este ejemplo sigue: Suelo ir a natación todas las semanas. Específicamente es la palabra "todas". Por favor escucha esta palabra Y dígame si es correcto.

Is "yo suelo ir" a Latin American idiom or more of a Spanish idiom?

When we write objects after the verb, do we always write them in the order Direct Object followed by Indirect Object, like this?

(Les) cantaron una canción a Pedro y Pablo por su despedida.

Or can we change the order like this:

(Les) cantaron a Pedro y Pablo una canción por su despedida.

Thanks.

PS How can I find my answered questions?  I don't seem to be getting notifications.

Marcos

Hi! Is there any difference between the prepositions en and sobre with the verb pensar? E.g. can I say Ellos siempre piensan sobre el trabajo ?

Does this mean I would never use EL or Un with Te?

Thank You

The sentence is We are going to have dinner etc....  But the infinitive verb used is salir which means to leave.  Why is the verb tener not used as this doesn't make sense to me

I had the correct answer to the question below........until I read the hint which totalaly confused me as "Retrasar" was present in gerundial form in one of the possible choices.

Hola Kwiziq team

I can't find any on-line Spanish grammar text that indicates that "que" can be used in place of "porque" to begin an explanatory clause. I assume that that usage must be very colloquial and only used when talking with friends.  Am I correct about that?

Al

Shouldn't "Susana nos habia pedido..." translates not as "Susana has asked us...", but rather "Susana had asked us..."?