Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola Inma,

I think the spelling of the indefinido of creer should be "creyó."

Saludos

John

What is the translation of this sentence 'Nunca hubiese pensado que mi destino estuviese en Cantabria'. 

Could it also be Nunca hubiese pensado que mi destino estaría en Cantabria? Or does this change the meaning?

Many thanks,

Kathryn

After reading this chapter and the comments I think there is an English usage that is very similar and helps to explain it a little more clearly.  We have the structure "to have got(ten)...done."  (instead of I have done 3 things). Like in Spanish, it usually means that you've done several things toward your goal and you have gotten them out of the way.

e.g. 

I've painted three rooms.  He pintado tres habitaciones.

I've gotten three rooms painted, or I got three rooms painted.  Tengo pintadas tres habitaciones.

You can apply that formula to all the other examples.  Helped me to understand this much better.

Same thing with:

The book has (gotten) me interested.

El libro me tiene interesado. 

Does Spanish allow combining this construction to say:

“No se qué ves en ese chico. No es totalmente feo pero ni que fuera Brad Pitt.”

Or could/should I say, “No es feo pero (tampoco) no es como si fuera...”

Thanks! 

One of the quiz examples translates  They achieved the objectives for the year.  using el preterito indefinido.    

My first thought would be that this sentence would fall under the "in the same time period" rule and end up being el preterito perfecto (rule is at this link) link  When to use the perfect tense versus the simple past (Perfecto vs Indefinido)

I am curious how I can tell (other than the hint given in the exercise) that this should be indefinido.

Thanks.

Hola Inma,

I can't understand the meaning of the phrase "lo suyo sería buscar un trabajo remoto". Can you, please explain?

Un salydo

Ελισάβετ

Please correct the English in these (and other) exercises. Native speakers of English would not say something is "different to". We say, it is "different from". 

E.g., English is different from Spanish in that we use the apostrophe to show the possessive

In many lessons, we're told not to use the subjunctive when we have the same subject in both clauses.  Yet a few examples in this lesson don't follow this rule.  Could you please help us to understand when the rule applies and when it doesn't?  Thanks.

Hello,

In the following sentence I expected está, as "but it is very cold".  Have I got this wrong?

"El agua es clara, pero esta muy fría."

Thanks