Spanish language Q&A Forum

The answer given is “han tomado”. I don’t think tomado has been covered. I thought it should be tímido. Can you please explain?

The answer given for the blank is “estado” — I don’t think that has been covered in any lesson (in A1). Can you explain?

I see that, at the bottom of this lesson, there's a note that says what "pluscamperfecto" refers to. It's a very simple explanation -- to talk about something that had happened. 

It would be SO helpful to have these short explanations of what a given grammar term means at the TOP of the lesson, just below the term for the lesson. I look at all these grammar terms and my eyes cross. I have no idea what they mean and I start to feel like there is no way I can learn Spanish because I'm so lost in all these terms. Taking the time to learn grammar terms seems like a tedious distraction from just learning to speak Spanish: a roadblock.

It's not uncommon for people in the US to have never learned grammar, so on behalf of myself, and all the mediocre public school graduates, I implore you: move the explanation for what a grammar term is to the top of the lesson. It's such a simple change and will make learning so much more accessible and these lessons so much more meaningful. 

I just took one of the B1 quizes and I got this one wrong:

La había comprado para sus padres. ________ la había comprado. (He'd bought it for his parents. He'd bought it for them.)

It says the answer is "Se la habia comprado." I put "Por ellos, la había comprado."

Is it ever correct to "por" whoever, instead of "se"?

It sounds more natural to me to say "La había comprado por ellos," rather than "Se lo había comprado." It also seems clearer because "ellos" is specific (them), where as "se" could be you, him, them...

Is that wrong? Less common? Common only in certain countries or situations?

Why es “que flores” correct? I thought “cual flores” would be the correct response… the question was “what flowers do you prefer?”

Hola, tengo una pregunta sobre una frase que encontré en un libro que estoy leyendo. El párrafo dice: "Pero había un problema: si se quedaban allí juntos, no habría comida ni agua suficientes para todos."

Mi duda es: ¿Por qué se utiliza el imperfecto de indicativo ("se quedaban" en esta oración condicional en lugar del  imperfecto de subjuntivo ("se quedaran") ? Si ambas son correctas, cual es la diferencia?

Gracias de antemano

Just jumping in here to echo other comments: This lesson alone is not a lesson, it just tells you that this tense exists.

Thanks to another commenter, I'm studying these two lessons to learn how to conjugate in imperfect tense:

Conjugate regular -ar verbs in the imperfect tense in Spanish (El Pretérito Imperfecto)
Conjugate regular -er and -ir verbs in the imperfect tense in Spanish (El Imperfecto)

It offers solutions with LESS impact.   I put MENOS impacto and don't understand why this is incorrect. I understand MENOR to mean smaller or younger

Gracias

Puedo decir, por ejemplo, este tipo del díalogo "Sabes, mucha gente me dijo que estas lecciones son aburridas, pero no lo creo.- Te aseguro que lo son"?

Si no, enséñame como sería correcto