Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello Inma,

Just a quick note to point out the misspelling of imperative ("impeative") in the sub-heading of this section.   

I am having difficulty understanding the difference in terminology between "impersonal se" and "passive reflexive se" and in particular the difference in their translation into English. ¿Puedes ayudarme?

nos sentamos en una banqueta, de lo más felices mientras la música....

In the lesson on emphasis all the examples use a masculine singular adjective ( I put de lo más contento ) but was marked wrong. Is it really wrong?

Gracias

Hello!

Why use subjuntivo vs indicativo in this sentence? 

Una vez que ustedes firmen, no hay marcha atrás. 

I can’t imagine using subjuntivo, or maybe I’m just thinking of it as a real factual warning vs something hypothetical that I can’t imagine in real situation. 

I have noticed that the word “video” is pronounced differently in Spain and Latin America.  In Latin America, the word is pronounced as 3 syllables and the accent is on the “e” (2nd or middle syllable).  In contrast, in Spain the word seems to be pronounced with the accent on the “i” (1st syllable) and it seems like the word may only have 2 syllables in the peninsular pronunciation (with the “eo” pronounced as a one syllable diphthong).  Is this correct, and if not, what is going on here?

Buenas tardes Silvia y Inma,

I do understand the use of 'sentir' instead of 'oler' when referring to the 'being able to smell the aroma'. I was wondering though if 'sentir' is used in mainland Spain as well as in Latin America? Also, is 'sentir' used with any other of the 'senses', i.e. to touch, etc.?

Gracias.

Wouldn't "Le gustaría explicarme..." be just as polite a question as "Podría explicarme..."?

Hola

Me puedes explicar por que usamos 'le' aqui?

1. Le tengo miedo a las alturas.

2. Le tenemos miedo a las alturas.

3. Le tienen miedo a las alturas.

Please advise how I can type the accent on the letters