Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,574 questions • 8,908 answers • 861,763 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,574 questions • 8,908 answers • 861,763 learners
Hi Silvia. The phrase "expression of doubt" (I paraphrase) and the way it is used here seem ambiguous. How is it that according to the tests "creemos que" and "piensan que" don't express doubt; to me, since they don't express certainty, there is doubt. Likewise, how is it that "es impossible que" is followed by the subjunctive, when it expresses certainty that something is not possible. Please clarify. Thanks.
A ella le molestaba que nosotras ________ con su novio.It bothered her that we had spoken to her boyfriend.HINT: Conjugate "hablar" in El Pretérito Pluscuamperfecto de SubjuntivoHi all, In the above phrase... There is nothing hypothetical. It's a fact that the girl was upset that some people spoke to her boyfriend.. It should be indicative in my opinion... Pls help
Hello,
Thank you very much for this lesson !
It would greatly enhance your course and the use thereof if you included the same “Play All” feature for all the examples given at the end of each of your approximately 600 lessons.
Foggy and sunny are both adjectives so why does one use hay and one use está?
Hay niebla
Está soleado,
Gracias
From your examples we have
Hace viento
It is windy
Está soleado.
It is sunny
Hay niebla.
It is foggy
How do we know when to use which one please?
Hola a todos,
‘Da igual cuál sea tu sueño...’
If I’m correct then I understand this sentence to mean, ‘It doesn’t matter what your dream is...’ The latter part of the sentence says, ‘it can be related to your lifestyle’. It’s the part of the sentence that says, ‘...no tiene por qué estar relacionado con trabajo...’, that I’m struggling with. I think I’m right to understand that it means, ‘it doesn’t have to be related with/to work’. I’m just not grasping the use of ‘por que’ here? Please could you explain it to me?
Many thanks
Clara :)
Hi Silvia. In the example, "Tal vez yo haya estudiado mucho para el examen," the English translation says, "I might have studied a lot for the exam". Is that "I might have studied a lot" in the sense "maybe I would have studied a lot [if I had time?"] Or "Perhaps (it possible) I studied a lot for the exam"? Both?
Oh wait, after writing this I realized that the sentence perhaps means, "I should have studied a lot for the exam.” We Americans almost never use the word “might” in this sense. I’m not sure how much you Brits (all British residents) do. Is this the sense in which it is used here?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level