Spanish language Q&A Forum

In a textbook a sentence was given as:

“ Es muy gordo; come más que dos hombres ordinaries.”

My question is why is it not más de because of the “dos” being a quantitative factor.  Is it a comparison?

I understand the notion of using estar rather than ser when the job is temporary, but there is absolutely nothing in the question to indicate that the job is a temporary or permanent position in most of the examples    If a job is to be permanent would you use ser rather than estar when referring to an appointment that someone is going to take up?  In the test questions and examples, it would seem not but the lesson notes don't explakin why.

te, se, nos vs le, les

Does it mean that he wants to be on the ship on the day of his birthday? Or does he want to receive the gift on that day?

Just to say thank you for this great explanation here!  I don’t remember reading this lesson before and I’m really glad I’ve found it now via the Q&A forum. Whenever I consider ‘sino’ I think of the word ‘instead’...  I also didn’t know about ‘sino que’. Great lesson! 

Gracias y saludos.

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My question is really a b1/b2 question, but I can't find where to put it.

if one doesn't know if something exists, isn't "haya" (subjunctive) more correct?

eg  ¿Haya un piscina cerca de aquí? 

Would you explain more clearly when one does or does not use "de" in this form? As far as I can extrapolate, if an infinitive is to follow, we use "de" but otherwise no?

Or is it optional in any instance?