Spanish language Q&A Forum

"Cuál es" works just fine in Mexico to ask "what is". Just because you haven't introduced it in the lesson yet shouldn't make it wrong. The problem with learning formal speech is that nobody talks like this in every day Life. People don't speak proper English in America, and they don't in Latin America either. The same with "me llamó" v "llamó" In Mexico they don't always say me llamó José, just llamó José. Both are right, they know what I'm saying. I want to learn both proper and common speech. Just learning the proper leads to a lot of confusion when you get to where you're going. Nobody talks completely proper, in fact English is so infused with Spanish, they have many made up spanglish words. When you go into a local neighborhood if you speak proper they don't know what you're saying. Really! No one says como se llama usted, me llamo José. They just stare at you like you're a snob. 

Lo siento por la novela

Hola,

In the explanation for the following sentence, it's mentioned that one of the subjunctive possibilities is that it might snow later:

Aunque esté nevando, voy a sacar al perro a pasear.

My question is: because we are using nevando, rather than nieva - is that not telling us it is snowing right now (present participle), and therefore can't be a future event?

So, the only possibility is that it is subjunctive because it is shared information that it is snowing right now?

Gracias,

Hola,

In the mornings, we sewed clothes with them,

Kwizbot           Por las mañanas,

You                  En la mañana,

Could you please either let me know about the difference here or steer me to the related lesson.

And:

and that's how our day ended with them.

Kwizbot               y así terminaba nuestro día con ellos.
You             y asi fue como nuestro dia se terminaba con ellos

I was wondering if my sentence is in any way acceptable, or is it “spanglish” and why in either case.

Thank you for your help and Happy New Year to you and your team!

Nicole

¿Porque no se capitaliza español?

Being in a specific location "They"  (Implicit in venden),  could be the shop owners or staff and it would not be impersonal.  I know it fits the format of the lesson but in this situation, I would have thought "se venden" would have been a more impersonal expression with no possibiloity of ambiguity.

From the lesson:

>There is no gender or number agreement for the adjective or the article, we always use the singular masculine form and the neutral article "lo". 

But there's a quiz question for this lesson with the correct answer "de lo más atractiva". Which is correct?

Why is this the correct answer: Usted esta en la lista and not Usted estas en la lista?

I am unable to find Part 1 and Part 4 of Un crimen perfecto.  Can you help?

Sherri

¿En este ejemplo por qué la forma segunda persona singular del verbo dar se usa para el imperativo?

Here is my question in English, in case my question in Spanish is incorrect or just too awkward:

In this example, why is the 2nd person singular form of the verb, dar, used for the imperative?

Hola,

I don't know if a reply occurred in some other area, but I was wondering if you could give a bit more info

to help me understand this.  I still have trouble with this particular example.

My earlier question was following  your reply for : "Why the imperfect is used and not the preterit in:"puesto que era mi cumpleaños " 

(I sent this same request on my Questions and Answers page, and didn't see the reply there,)

Muchas gracias, Nicole