Spanish language Q&A Forum

Could we have used the infinitive for "... so I don't catch a cold" ? >> [rendering it as: "... para no coger un resfriado"].

My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) implies that 'por' might also be permissible here: i.e. "... por no coger un resfriado" - when it means "out of a wish or a desire to not catch a cold". Thus, I am wondering if [when a negative is involved] - "por no ... +infinitive" might actually be more common than "para no...+ infinitive" ?

This show is called "Españoles en el mundo" not "Españoles por el mundo": https://www.rtve.es/alacarta/videos/espanoles-en-el-mundo/ It's one of my favorite shows in Spanish. Thank you for featuring it Kwiziq team!

In one quiz there was a sentence:   Hace calor.  Saldré al jardin un rato.   Voy a salir  sounds more natural and is what I hear more often from South Americans. Is the use of the future tense more common in Spain?

Wow, even after listening this 15 times, I couldn't make head nor tail from this question (¿Puedes creértelo?).

I'm not clear on the difference between Quedar and Quedarse when expressing results.  The lesson says to use quedar to emphasize a result, and to use quedarse to express the result of a change.  What's the difference, please?  For instance, the following two examples seem pretty similar to me:

Seguro que quedarás contenta con tu pelado nuevo.
I am sure you will be/end up pleased with your new hair cut.

¡Laura va a quedarse pasmada con la noticia!
Laura will be astonished with the news!

Thanks. 

I'm still confused by the use of "ser" and "estar" for different ideas related to location.  Is this pair of sentences correct?

El entierro es en el cementerio de su pueblo.  El cementerio está fuera del pueblo.  

I've been reading a book in print and they have "este" (no accent) as the demonstrative adjective and "éste" (accent) as the demonstrative pronoun:

esta casa (adj.)
ésta es mi casa (pron.)

But I don't see that in this lesson. Is it out of date/RAE stuff or is it only included when ambiguous and my book is being overzealous?

Also, there was a really cool little fact in the book that said that "aquél" and "éste" are used in the same way that "former" and "latter" are in English. I'm still confused as to whether the accent is necessary or optional for pronouns, however.