In the sentence:
La bruja le maldice todos los años. (The witch curses him every year)
I expected it to read "lo maldice" to say "to curse him" where "him" would be the direct object. Why is it le?
This "le" referring to "him" as a direct object is a use of le as lo that is not that unusual in some parts of Spain. The use of le as "him" (not her) is accepted by the Spanish Academy; it's called "leísmo". You can read a bit about this here.
I've changed it though to "lo" to reflect the more general norm for direct object pronouns.
Gracias y saludos
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