Always using the definite article with what you are good (or bad) atI have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
1. In your "hint", you told us to "... use a pronominal verb for 'take advantage' " -
- but despite that^, in order to get a correct answer we were supposed to write: "Aprovecha la ruptura para conocerte más a ti misma" - [i.e., with 'aprovecha', a non-pronominal verb?]
("Aprovecha la ruptura ..." is of course quite consistent with the guidelines given in your lesson at Spanish verb Aprovechar vs Aprovecharse (pronominal verbs) [number 7478] ... so it is only your 'hint' which needs to be modified, not your text).
-.-.-.-.-
2. In your sentence: "... ya que ambos estábais sumergidos en una relación tóxica", there should not be a tilde in 'estabais'?
Si él gana ellas pagar la cuenta pero si Rafa no gana?
I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
I get this message even after I click around for awhile:
You took this Kwiz 16 minutes ago.
This lesson is already in your notebook. Go to your notebook now to kwiz this topic as many times as you like.
I answered "alguno," but apparently the answer is "algunos." I don't understand why based on this quote from the lesson. Thanks!
"Sometimes, when alguno and alguna are used in affirmative sentences, it has the nuance of "some random something/someone", "one or two" or "the odd one". The idea is non-specific in number and can refer to one or more items. It does agree in gender but not in number: even if it refers to a plural noun, the pronoun is in the singular form, not the plural form."
How does this lesson fit with the other lesson "Using Querer in El Preterito Indefinido vs. El Preterito Imperfecto", which seems to be saying that querer in the Simple Past means "to try"?
Mis amigos van a pagar una cena en un restaurante tailandés.
So here, quemar is indicative. Would the subjunctive queme also be acceptable in this sentence? Or does the si prompt indicative only?
(Translation for the interested: Dalí would say that if the Prado Museum burned down, he would save only this painting.)
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