A question about indirect object pronouns and IO or reflexive pronouns instead of possessive pronouns?Indirect objects/pronouns are clearly necessary in certain cases such as when pegar is used to mean "to hit" someone/something as in "Le pega al hermano" for "He hits his brother." (Golpear takes a direct object as in "Golpeo la pelota y ella la golpea también" as in "I hit the ball and she hits it too.")
However, when given the sentence (in Duolingo):
"Did you see the goalie stopping all of their penalties"
why are the translations:
1) "Viste al portero atajándoles/parándoles/deteniéndoles todos los penales" accepted
while the translations:
2) Viste al portero atajándo/parando/deteniendo todos sus penales aren't accepted?
I know that we use object pronouns in place of possessives with body parts most of the time and sometimes with clothing as in "Me pongo los guantes" for "I put on my gloves" but why #2 supposedly unacceptable (or is it acceptable also)?
Any help would be appreciated as I can find no clear explanation and most translators actually give #2 as the answer.
Can I say in the following ? 1. No es mi culpa, 2. ha sido su culpa 3. Es culpa de Juan, 4. No tengo culpa
Indirect objects/pronouns are clearly necessary in certain cases such as when pegar is used to mean "to hit" someone/something as in "Le pega al hermano" for "He hits his brother." (Golpear takes a direct object as in "Golpeo la pelota y ella la golpea también" as in "I hit the ball and she hits it too.")
However, when given the sentence (in Duolingo):
"Did you see the goalie stopping all of their penalties"
why are the translations:
1) "Viste al portero atajándoles/parándoles/deteniéndoles todos los penales" accepted
while the translations:
2) Viste al portero atajándo/parando/deteniendo todos sus penales aren't accepted?
I know that we use object pronouns in place of possessives with body parts most of the time and sometimes with clothing as in "Me pongo los guantes" for "I put on my gloves" but why #2 supposedly unacceptable (or is it acceptable also)?
Any help would be appreciated as I can find no clear explanation and most translators actually give #2 as the answer.
Voy a perderme el viaje a Cuba a menos que ________ un milagro. Why is the answer " occura" if it follows an adverbial clause. Shouldn't it be in the subjunctive form?
This is an excellent lesson. Very clearly explained.
I understand the idea of using the imperfect to picture what is happening in the moment. But there is another tense for this as well. I forget the name of it, so I will just use an example.
"La profesora abría la puerta."
"La profesora estaba abriendo la puerta."
Would the choice between these two tenses be up to the speaker, or would there be a grammatical rule that tells us which one to use?
Thanks.
Hola Inma,
"haciendo la vida más fácil al usuario" and "costará a los gobiernos millones de dólares".
I wonder if it would be wrong to say haciéndole la vida más fácil al usuario and les costará a los gobiernos millones de dólares, instead.
Saludos
Ελισάβετ
The answer instructions don't say to answer all that could be correct or just one answer.
Are points taken off for just giving one correct answer?
Suppose I wanted to say something like, "I wouldn't have minded if they got married, I was seeing someone else", or "I didn't care if the wrecked their's appetite with ice cream, I wasn't going to make dinner anyway" is there no combination of tenses that would admit the use o "por mí que"?
Hola,
I think “les” is an indirect object pronoun in this phrase. I thought a direct object pronoun would be used because it is “we helped them.” We are the subject they are the direct object. Can you explain?
Many thanks. John
Why does árbol become arbolillo, but corazón becomes corazoncillo? They both end in consonants.
The explanation above says both that "If the original noun ends in a consonant, it usually keeps the last letter (árbol → arbol-illo)", but also that "when the noun ends in a consonant...we tend to keep the whole word and add -cillo, -cilla, -cillos, -cillas".
So why isn't it arbolcillo?
Thanks!
Hi, if I want to say he is one of the nicest people I know - es uno de las personas más agradables yo sé, is this correct? I am asking this because I'm confused whether you can use uno and a feminine noun like personas and vice versa in the same sentence because all of the examples do not have this sort of example.
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