Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the article on masculine gender the example given is "Tiene dos hijos, Laura y Antonio."  The translation  is They have two children... "  I thought it the verb should be "Tienen" since there are two people being referred to.  Is the example correct and, if so, can you provide an explanation?

 CORRECTION:Lucrecia earns a living by acting in comedies.....................In english you do not use the word LIFE in this sentence

 Al haberse portado tan mal, lo expulsaron del colegio.

the pronoun se came right after haber not after portado nor in front of haber.

This is different from any other rules I knew, like:

Me lo dijo. Me lo ha dicho. Dímelo ! Quiero dárselos.

So which rule applies to this ? 

Tiene   -  can be stated with or without  tu, so this question should be marked correct!

With

Los que hayan reservado con antelación pueden ir a esa ventanilla.
The ones who booked in advance can go to that desk.

should the translations be can go to that window?

Confession. I always cheat on questions regarding the second person plural because I live in California where I have frequent opportunities to use Spanish and hope to have more both at home and in travels to Central and South America. No disrespect to Spain, but is there any way to alter my tests so they exclude questions which test Spanish as it's spoken in Spain. Thanks.

In the examples using past actions in the main clause, either the pretérito imperfecto or the pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo are used. However, in the explanation it says the pretérito indefinido or the plusucmaperfecto.