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5,820 questions • 9,536 answers • 953,833 learners
Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,820 questions • 9,536 answers • 953,833 learners
¿Porque se dice ambos, el presente perfecto (en otros textos) y el pretérito perfecto? Esto me confunde mucho... ¡Muchas gracias!
My question and answer: How would you say "For many years I have done Tai Chí"? I picked "Desde hace muchos años hago Taichí. But it says the correct answer is Desde much años hago Taichí.
Looking at the lesson that the link takes me too, I only see to use Desde when the time is specific like 1 year.
Please help.
Is Deberías habermélo dicho equivalent to Habemélo dicho?
Is Podrías habermélo dicho equivalent to Habemélo dicho?
Is Habrías habermélo dicho also correct?
Te vamos a ayudar y vamos a hacer que pases este examen sin problema.
We're going to help you and get you pass this exam with no difficulty.
This above sentence in English makes no sense and would not be said. I tried to think of alternate ways of saying it, maintaining the integrity of the sentence. Here a couple examples:
We're going to help you, and make (sure) you pass this exam with no difficulty.
We're going to help you, and get you through this exam with no difficulty.
Perhaps someone else could provide a better solution?
“Tiene algo que declarar/hacer” but “Tiene algo de comer” or sometimes “Tiene algo para comer.” How does one know which one to use when?
How common is the second form of the imperfect subjunctive in everyday language? I.E. The conjugation that has 'iese' for ER/IR verbs and 'ase' for AR verbs. Do native speakers favor one over the other?
why is a future tense used in this sentence? could we use some of the past tenses instead?
Hola,
I came across this construction and I wasn't sure how to translate it. The use of the gerund does not follow any lesson I've seen. Is it similar to the "hacer/mandar + infinitive" construction?
Tienes un hijo criandose en el convento.
Hello,
I am reading a fairly reputable bilingual version of Sherlock Holmes. On one sentence it says 'Iba vestido discretamente con un traje de mezclilla de lana....'
The translation (and my own reading of the context) suggests that this means 'He was discretely dressed....'
But if that's the case why have they used 'iba'? Is that incorrect? The man was not 'going to do' anything. He just 'was'. My searching online and using Google translate suggests that only estar (or possibly ser) in the past tense are valid here, not ir.
Thanks!
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