Spanish language Q&A Forum

I see that, at the bottom of this lesson, there's a note that says what "pluscamperfecto" refers to. It's a very simple explanation -- to talk about something that had happened. 

It would be SO helpful to have these short explanations of what a given grammar term means at the TOP of the lesson, just below the term for the lesson. I look at all these grammar terms and my eyes cross. I have no idea what they mean and I start to feel like there is no way I can learn Spanish because I'm so lost in all these terms. Taking the time to learn grammar terms seems like a tedious distraction from just learning to speak Spanish: a roadblock.

It's not uncommon for people in the US to have never learned grammar, so on behalf of myself, and all the mediocre public school graduates, I implore you: move the explanation for what a grammar term is to the top of the lesson. It's such a simple change and will make learning so much more accessible and these lessons so much more meaningful. 

I just took one of the B1 quizes and I got this one wrong:

La había comprado para sus padres. ________ la había comprado. (He'd bought it for his parents. He'd bought it for them.)

It says the answer is "Se la habia comprado." I put "Por ellos, la había comprado."

Is it ever correct to "por" whoever, instead of "se"?

It sounds more natural to me to say "La había comprado por ellos," rather than "Se lo había comprado." It also seems clearer because "ellos" is specific (them), where as "se" could be you, him, them...

Is that wrong? Less common? Common only in certain countries or situations?

Why es “que flores” correct? I thought “cual flores” would be the correct response… the question was “what flowers do you prefer?”

Hola, tengo una pregunta sobre una frase que encontré en un libro que estoy leyendo. El párrafo dice: "Pero había un problema: si se quedaban allí juntos, no habría comida ni agua suficientes para todos."

Mi duda es: ¿Por qué se utiliza el imperfecto de indicativo ("se quedaban" en esta oración condicional en lugar del  imperfecto de subjuntivo ("se quedaran") ? Si ambas son correctas, cual es la diferencia?

Gracias de antemano

Puedo decir, por ejemplo, este tipo del díalogo "Sabes, mucha gente me dijo que estas lecciones son aburridas, pero no lo creo.- Te aseguro que lo son"?

Si no, enséñame como sería correcto

Hola, querría preguntar si podemos decir "Ella se porta mal siempre cuando viene de visita" en vez de "Ella se porta mal siempre que viene de visita."

I got confused with the explanation as you highlighted that ninguno  is an ind pronoun which cant be used with a noun but gave no examples of the use of the ninguno whereas the actual test question 20 is all about the correct indefinite adjective ie ninguna playa which I got wrong. As a beginner one would naturally be forgiven thinking that there is a family of masculine and feminine indefinite adjectives but this appears wrong as the "apparent masc version is ninguno  BUT it is an indefinte pronoun so would one look at a text grammar book as I could not resolve this/ Why mix up the tip on the same page??

Are the ending masculine -os or feminine -as based on the noun in the sentence or the adjective of the sentence?