What differentiates the 2 sentences belowWhy in the 1st sentence does the noun precede and why in the 2nd sentence does the adjective precede?
Aquel hombre pobre no tiene dinero. (Poor)
Aquel pobre hombre era muy desgraciado. (Disgraced)
The only distinction I see is the different quality described by each adjective.
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And, how does the chart below help to answer my question?
Adjective before after
pobre unfortunate poor
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It would be useful to use single spacing in this edit window. It would be a more efficient use of space, minimizing the need to scroll. I am obsessed with formatting.
Thank you, James
In the lesson "Use Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido " we have this example:
-¿Dónde está Jaime? -Hace dos horas que se fue.
-Where is Jaime? -He left two hours ago.
In the lesson "When to use the perfect tense versus the simple past in European Spanish (Perfecto vs Indefinido)" we have this example:
Note: If you talk about time ago using hace then the tense will still depend on whether the event in question was 'today' or another day:
Lo he visto hace 2 minutos.
I saw him two minutes ago.
Are they both correct? It they are, that tells me that when using "Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido", we could either of these?
Jim Kurczewski
In both cases, I was hesitant about whether to include the definite articles and I erred on the side of including them - which was wrong.
#1 - I put "vamos a intercambiar las ideas" instead of just "ideas". I've found that in English we use the definite articles much less than in Spanish, so I think I need a refresher of when to use them and when to leave them out! Can you point me in the right direction?
#2 - And with "voy a salir de casa temprano" , I actually had put this correct answer first but then doubted myself and put "voy a salir temprano de la casa". Can you explain why this is wrong? Thanks!
Why in the 1st sentence does the noun precede and why in the 2nd sentence does the adjective precede?
Aquel hombre pobre no tiene dinero. (Poor)
Aquel pobre hombre era muy desgraciado. (Disgraced)
The only distinction I see is the different quality described by each adjective.
---------------------------------------------
And, how does the chart below help to answer my question?
Adjective before after
pobre unfortunate poor
---------------------------------------------
It would be useful to use single spacing in this edit window. It would be a more efficient use of space, minimizing the need to scroll. I am obsessed with formatting.
Thank you, James
In the kwiz, the sentence is: "La matemática y la aritmética no son lo mismo." I understand that we use "lo mismo" when discussing an abstract idea, but in this case, does the phrase have to match the compound subject and verb, los mismos?
Thank you David and Inma for your replies.
But, is the sentence not really: (Nosostros) érasmos nosotros los que ...?
And 'los que' would mean 'ones who'?
Saludos,
Colin
Hola Inma,
I can' t understand the use of él here: ¿Que nunca has oído hablar de él?
Sounds like referring to a male person. Why don't you use ello here, since it's about a mountain?
I've seen this stuctrure elsewhere, but still don't understand it. Can you, please, explain?
Un salulo
Ελισάβετ
Doesn't it depend on what the speaker wants to express, whether a subjunctive or indicative of sonar would be used here? Wouldn't "Cuando suena" (indicative) also be a valid way to put it, if the speaker thinks about the event as actually happening?
Because if so, I wouldn't know which answer to pick in the quiz, because they were presented as alternatives.
Thank you!
Here in Mexico I've heard the use of the indirect form: "No me dio ganas." Is this generally common, and can we use it in different constructions, such as "Me da ganas viajar a Guatemala."?
Buenas tardes,
Whenever I click on the link for the lesson on conjugating ‘Hacer’ en el Futuro Simple I am brought here for conjugating ‘Salir’ en el Futuro Simple.
I’d be most grateful if you could check this out of me.
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