Spanish language Q&A Forum

In this sentence:  "Les lanzo la pelota y deben apagarla con las dos manos."  

I throw you the ball, and you must stop it with two hands.

I don't understand the use of 'Les" is it referring to 'you"?

Hola

Is the "que" that precedes "han tenido" interchangeable  with quienes or los cuales here ?

Saludos

Kevin

In the answer, the first sentence is future tense, but the second sentence is conditional tense?  What is going on?  Why are not both these sentences either future or conditional?  

To me it seems like such a long process for gustar to become "natural".

I literally have to parse every gustar sentence so that the pronoun tells me who is being liked, the verb then tells who is being liked (not who is doing the liking!):

I know this keeps coming up, but in the examples we see: “las llaves de la casa”, and “la reserva de hotel”. Both these expressions follow the structure of NOUN + DE + NOUN. Why do we only use “la” for the first one?

Why do some of the verbs get tildas?

se lo quiero comprar becomes comprárselo

and 

se lo estamos decorando becomes estamos decorándoselo

You don't need a hyphen between "commonly" and "used" in the first sentence of this lesson, or indeed between any adverb and the adjective it modifies. That's what the -ly ending is for. 

I understood from the lesson on 'Whoever / all those who' that todos aquellos was always followed by a subjunctive.

...una muñeca querida en los corazones de todos aquellos que han tenido el placer de disfrutar...  shouldn't this be hayan tenido el placer?

Gracias

Some of these sentences, like "La iglesia está al lado del colegio", were spoken extremely fast. Spanish relies on a phonetic grammar rather than on timing to separate words, and this is very difficult for someone who hasn't even learned Spanish word grammar.

you have been my best friend since we were children =  eres mi mejor amiga desde que éramos pequeñas.

BUT In the previous exercise 'My Love Story´

Since then, we've been joined at the hip   =  Desde entonces, hemos sido como uña y carne

When I queried why in the second example it was incorrect to say somos como uña y carne,  Sylvia explained:

This construction with "hemos sido" (present perfect) conveys the idea that the close relationship has been ongoing since that point in the past. Your attempt was almost correct, but using the present perfect aligns better with the context of an enduring connection over time.

I don't understand then why it is incorrect to say has estado mi mejor amiga desde que éramos pequeñas

Is it correct to say " he vivido en esta casa desde hace 20 años" ? There is an enduring connection. The lessons with desde always state the use of the present.

Gracias