Re: translation Hola, y gracias por responder a mi pregunta.
My question relates to the sentence in this quiz:
"and be able to work on the negative aspects."
Kwizbot: y poder trabajar en los aspectos negativos.
You: y ser capaz de trabajar en los aspectos negativos.
Note: My sentence does translate to : “and be able to work on the negative” aspects.
I wanted to check with you if what I wrote: "ser capaz de" is correct and if not, why not ?
And if my use of "ser capaz de" is correct/acceptable? - I would imagine that
there would be some difference in meaning?..- and if so, what that would be.
Thank you for your help.
Nicole
Hi, can you please help me to understand why ‘Para lo que’ means ‘given how much’ in this sentence.
Thanks
Hi, surely the English Sentence should read.
The first thing I’ll do when I get home is TO LIE/LAY on the sofa.
Hola, y gracias por responder a mi pregunta.
My question relates to the sentence in this quiz:
"and be able to work on the negative aspects."
Kwizbot: y poder trabajar en los aspectos negativos.
You: y ser capaz de trabajar en los aspectos negativos.
Note: My sentence does translate to : “and be able to work on the negative” aspects.
I wanted to check with you if what I wrote: "ser capaz de" is correct and if not, why not ?
And if my use of "ser capaz de" is correct/acceptable? - I would imagine that
there would be some difference in meaning?..- and if so, what that would be.
Thank you for your help.
Nicole
why does uno change "a la una", but ocho does not "a las ocho en punto"? Thank you!
Why are numbers written with the feminine article when telling time "es la una y media", but written with the masculine article when writing the date, "mi cumpleaños es el uno/primero de enero"?
vegana por su novio. I put se ha hecho.
My sister has become a vegan for her boyfriend.How is this different from the example given with the use of hacerse?
Example given:Se ha hecho vegetariana después de ver el documental.She became a vegetarian after watching the documentary.
Is it because he changed (radically) for his girlfriend and not his (ideology) on his own accord ?
(A comment, not a question; I made a mistake in my translation, and I now see why I went wrong) >
I had to scratch my head a bit to see why there is no tilde in 'cuando' in the sentence [in the text]:
"Aún recuerdo cuando teníamos que revelar los carretes" [= I still remember when we had to develop rolls of film ...]
-- particularly after noticing the example: "No recuerdo cómo tomas el té ..." [= I can't remember how you take your tea ...] -- in: Difference between cómo and como in Spanish (with and without an accent)
I now realise that, in order to carry the tilde, the 'cuándo' or the 'cómo' must be part of an indirect question - which is indeed the case with the second example, but not the first.
Inma, Shui and Silvia - you do indeed provide us with interesting and useful exercises and explanations: Keep up the good work!
I answered both questions, but did not see any opportunity to register my second answer - and see whether I had been correct.
Hello,
I would like to know that in sentences like' Nosotros estamos en Uruguay esta semana' is it essential to write the Nosotros ? Wouldn't starting with estamos itself indicate 'We are'?.Similarly for the other sentence Vosotros estaís aburridos.....the conjugated verb form itself indicates that it is referring to vosotros. Please clarify.
Thanks
Alka
I see quite some time has been devoted to this subject. The first time I read the hairdresser example, the English struck me as quite wrong. I would add my two cents as follows:
If I went to the hairdresser, I'd spend a lot of money or If I went (had gone) to the hairdresser, I would have spent a lot of money.
Those seem to me to be the simplest way to correct it because one can't correctly say I would spent.
.
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