Spanish language Q&A Forum

Oops.  The webpage cut out part of my response.  Right after I wrote

Hacer + Infinitive, the second paragraph contains;

and here I quoted from the lesson:

     .."There is a tendency to use indirect pronouns me,te,le,nos,os,les when the verb in intransitive. However, if the verb is transitive, we usually use direct object pronouns me,te,lo,la,nos,os,los,las.

That's where I asked if this is misprint, or is referring to common mistakes that we make?

  The remainder of my comment got posted correctly.  Hope that my points are more clear now.

Desde dos años vs hace dos años, which one to use over the other ? Both means the same doesn’t it ? How to answer the test correctly then ?

Hola Inma,

Solo quería saber, ¿De qué parte de España es el orador en este ejercicio?

He escuchado tantas veces la frase donde dice, 'tus relaciones' y sé que es 'tus', pero me parece que está diciendo 'tu'. Supongo que es debido a su acento, ¿no? 

¿O tal vez mis oídos son el problema?No estoy segura! ;))

In this example, the subject (in English) of the sentence (todas las chicas) precedes the verb in the first sentence, but follows the verb (todas) in the second sentence. Would it be acceptable to place the subject before the verb in the second sentence so that it reads: "No, no a todas les gusta."? 

Can I ask you that when a thing and a thing (singular noun) or a thing and things (singular noun and plural noun)... followed verb "gustar" like listing, gusta or gustan is right?

For example: 

1. Me (gusta/gustan) el chocolate y la golosina.

2. Me (gusta/gustan) el chocolate y las golosinas.

3. Me (gusta/gustan) las golosinas y el chocolate.

Thank u so much

Si mue gusta. Cuando era niña comi toda las gaetas del mundo 

Lesson Haciendo Snowboard en Formigal:   I couldn't find how to add it to notebook. Can you help me? Randy

The question was to say "You like Marbella". How could the correct answer be "Me gusta Marbella." Your answer is incorrect.

A good, easy read, very well-narrated

Hola Inma,

I can’t work out why whether the information is already known to the parties concerned, that the subjunctive is used [in the pretérito imperfecto].

Also why using the pretérito indefinido would indicate that the information is new information.

In other words what is the logic behind this when forming the subjunctive? I completely get the idea of a hypothetical idea requiring the subjunctive, but the aspect of whether the information is already familiar to the people concerned, is confusing me. Saludos. John