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6,119 questions • 10,018 answers • 1,054,657 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,119 questions • 10,018 answers • 1,054,657 learners
Can "lo malo de . . ." in the last sentence also be translated as "la mala cosa . . ."?
I am confused about these. The lesson says they are interchangeable, but when I do the quizzes I get marked incorrect for choosing - for example - apenas instead of en cuanto. Can anyone help clarify this?
You might have fried too much the potatoes.
You might have fried the potatoes too much. (Is better in English)
Is it correct, in addition to "Whose books are those?" that this could also be translated as "From whom are those books?" I realize that in a perfect world, the context would clear up any ambiguity, but am I correct that the latter is a valid translation?
Thanks!
On a quiz question, my answer was marked wrong because I read "que se vaya" (irse) as "go away" instead of "is". This seems wrong to me. Irse means to GO away, not to BE away. The suggested answers don't even test the difference between "por mi" and "para mi".
What does "Por mí que se vaya bien lejos." mean?
I didn't want him to be far away.
I don't care if he is far away.
He went away just for me.
In my opinion he should go far away.
I see that “el” and “la” are based off masculine or feminine. How do I know if a general noun (e.g. car) is masculine or feminine tense?
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