Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why isn’t this considered an action that started in the past and is still ongoing?

If using the indicative or subjunctive is completely interchangeable without affecting the meaning, what are the reason(s) for choosing one over the other? Can you give some examples? 

Hello,

I found the following sentence in a Spanish grammar book that I am studying: “Por que es azul el cielo?” 

I thought the sentence would be: “Por que el cielo es azul?” 

What kind of rule does the first sentence fall under and how would I know when to structure my sentences like that? For example, would this only happen with questions?

Muchísimas gracias!

I like to think back to how new structures build on previous ones.  Are these sequences correct?

(1) las sandias grandes (large), las sandias más grandes (the largest), las sandias más grandes jamás cultivadas (the largest ever grown).

(2) el mejor vestido (the best), el mejor vestido jamás deseñado (the best ever designed)

Thanks.

I don’t understand any of this at all, whatsoever. I’ve read it many, many times, including the comments. I know there is a difference between Spain Spanish and Latin American Spanish for has/have, but how can one differentiate between them? I am so lost. 

So, how does Portuguese get into the mix of official languages? Is there a native African language first and then Spanish? And the French?

I don't understand why "Ya había"  + participle  is not a correct answer in both cases. Looking at the examples it seems it is a possible answer.

In English I believe this is incorrect. The gerund refers to the subject in the other sentence, so this sounds as if whoever knocked on the door was also getting ready for the party.

In Spanish if it is correct - how do we know it refers to ella? Based on context?

Are there more than 2 practice questions somewhere for each lesson?