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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,907 questions • 9,659 answers • 971,988 learners
As the coditional and the simple future both seem to be able to serve the same purpose of objection or disbelief. would "estudiará" also be correct? I know the question was asked in the context of a specific lesson but taken out of context such as in my notebook where I had both the use of simple future and conditinal lessons, without a hint, it can be difficult to choose.
Why does 'I have a garden' translate as 'Tengo jardín'? How do you know when to omit the definite article?
Hola Inma,
For the last sentence of this passage, for my translation, I wrote, ¡Qué baile tan bonito! It was however marked as incorrect. Please could you explain why that is?
Gracias.
Hello Inma,
I have been having difficulty choosing between the two above, I have read the lesson and the questions here.
In the lesson it states "
Debido a queIf we use debido a que, it can never be followed just by a noun, it needs a phrase."
But in your answer to a question here, you mention "debido a que" needs a CLAUSE, which is slightly different from a phrase in the text book I use to understand these things. In my book it says a PHRASE is any two or more words that don't contain a verb, but a CLAUSE needs to me able to stand by itself and be understood. Would you take a look and see if PHRASE or CLAUSE is the most appropriate for this lesson? Gracias.
Hola,
Bit confused by the stipulation for this. Is it purely down to the speaker’s discretion as to whether a definitive article is required post ‘de’?
I see examples with and examples without and am confused where the line is.
Gracias,
what does the > symbol mean when used in e>ie, e>i, etc?
I am having trouble with these. I was thinking "con el que", "para el que", etc meant "... which" as in 5124
and that "con lo que" and "de lo que", etc. meant "... what", as in 5125.
But then I missed some questions because I used "con el que" instead of the correct "con lo que". Can you help me out?
Thanks
Couldn't you use lograr for "to achieve"?
You give:- Ha venido quejandose hasta hoy = He's been complaining until today. Then:- Sospecho que desde aquel dia viene ocultamdome...- he's been hiding...
Same tense in English but different in Spanish. Why, please?
If I am reading this correctly, you're implying that quien and quienes can also apply to things as well as people. Is that really true? It's my understanding that they can only apply to people.
¿Qué piensas?
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