Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,119 questions • 10,022 answers • 1,054,966 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,119 questions • 10,022 answers • 1,054,966 learners
Hola,
Does 'vaya fastidio' here mean, 'what a nuisance'? If it does, then I really like this. I shall be using this at home during this never ending lockdown! My 23 year old, who is not a home usually, is beginning to drive me crazy, haha.
Dear Kwizteam,
I find it weird that the 'que' here is not 'qué'. In all of the other sentences where the word is used in exclamations or questions, it needs tilde. However, here, it does not. Could you comment?
Regards.
comsumiendo alimentos sanos en ella . Ia refers to alimentos why not en ello?
Kind regards,
Kevin
If it is not part of a response or we use it as a response but not immediately after, we need "lo":"
I can see that if there is any preliminary statement in the response before a "No sé" is spoken then the "lo" should be added ("No lo sé"). But what does the phrase "If it is not part of a response" refer to?
Thanks,
John Nolan
I study Spanish in Guatemala where we don’t use the form vous. Is there any way that my lessons can be without the vous form? Thank you.
Hi Inma, a suggestion, give an example with decir. Or would this be incorrect? E.g. Le dijo a ella. He told her. (She is affected in some way by him telling her).
When speaking of a location, such as the Canary Islands, would it not be the more permanent ser and not estar. I guess I don't have a clear understanding of the to verbs.
Could we have used the infinitive for "... so I don't catch a cold" ? >> [rendering it as: "... para no coger un resfriado"].
My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) implies that 'por' might also be permissible here: i.e. "... por no coger un resfriado" - when it means "out of a wish or a desire to not catch a cold". Thus, I am wondering if [when a negative is involved] - "por no ... +infinitive" might actually be more common than "para no...+ infinitive" ?
In the exercise, I translated 'so he was getting a little nervous' as 'así que se estaba poniendo un poco nervioso' but Kwizbot corrected it as 'así que se fue poniendo un poco nervioso'. In the explanation pages we are told that these two constructions are interchnageable but ir+gerund is more emphatic. So why was mine corrected? Is it wrong grammatically or does it sound absurd?
Hola,
Veo que solamente puedo ingresar hasta nivel B2 con Kwiziq español. Pero con Kwiziq frances, C1 es disponible. ¿Cuando podremos hacer lo mismo con español?
Gracias.
Nelson
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