Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello Kwiziq team .

I have a question concerning the use of the subjunctive mood.

1. No porque sea gratis significa que me lo vaya a comer todo 

2. No porque sea gratis me lo voy a comer todo.

Are both phrases correct ? What is the nuance when you opt to use the subjunctive or the indicative mood.

Thank you in advance. Your answers are always helpful in solving our grammatical doubts  

Acá se puede usar «del que» o «del cual» también?

Wouldn´t some other options for "appetizer" include: entrante, aperitivo, entrada?

For "main course":  plato principal, plato fuerte

for "some":  algunos/algunas   as in "algunas buenas verduras"

The above is an A2 question and the expected answer is te however no guidance is given that a singular informal tense is to be used.

Couldn't le, les or os also be used here if no further context is given.

So, how does Portuguese get into the mix of official languages? Is there a native African language first and then Spanish? And the French?

No es posible usar la palabra 'lo' en la frase : no lo entiendo?

In the above question why is tù te marked wrong? I thought the use of pronouns was optional in Spanish.

John M

________ (Busquemos) un apartamento más grande para los cuatro.

Why does this sentence need a subjunctive (as stated in the hint)?