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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,517 questions • 8,793 answers • 853,870 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,517 questions • 8,793 answers • 853,870 learners
Esta guerra habrá de acabar con la esperanza de paz de la gente.This war will put an end to people's hope for peace.
No te preocupes por lo que nunca ha de pasar.Don't worry about what will never happen.
Why is this second example not taking "haber" in the future tense also? Or is it just a bad English translation?
I don’t see any explanation in this unit as to use of the Subjunctive and yet many of the verbs in the examples are in the Subjunctive. Could you make it explicit what this depends on? Thank you.
Though most of the English translations here use the future tense, as an American English native speaker it sounds stilted to me. I would normally say, for example, "I hope you come out with us tonight", "I hope they're very happy in their marriage.", and "My brother and I hope that you have lots of luck with the job." To me, this form, which is our very subtle subjunctive present tense, is a more natural translation from the Spanish present subjunctive than the English translations in future tense here.
I find the interactive options on this exercise brilliant. Listening, clicking on phrases, getting a translation all work seamlessly. Also the narrative is straight forward, relevant and a great introduction (for me) to the subjunctive. The Lawless method is really good. Being able to click into explanatory teaching materials straight from the phrases is so helpful. It makes learning easy. Thanks!
As far as I can see, the text doesn’t discuss ‘hasta’ which is listed as an option in the answers but marks as wrong. My dictionary seems to have some examples where ‘hasta’ is used for movement towards a place. What is the distinction?
In the 1st person and 3rd person singular in the given examples I notice that the words from the verb 'to be able to', i.e 'could' and 'couldn't' are used. In sentences like these would we just have to be aware that these words are implied?
Thank you
Clari.
Since the preposition “a” as a personal “a” wouldn’t “les” also be a correct?
hi the Link to the wider lesson on this isnt working. When will it be available?
Im currently working on the idea that (in Spain) spaniards use the present perfect (when English would use the simple past) when there is a sense that the verb happened in the recent past, or otherwise related to the present in some way. e.g you SAW the film THIS week, we SAW your parents (maybe THIS morning), or they SAW the sunrise (last night).
is this right?
The answer to ‘they were about to finish their exam’ is given as ‘Han estado a punto de...’
there’s no sense that this is the situation of ‘but something intervened’, and it doesn’t feel like a natural ‘perfecto’ tense to me, more just an action in the past. So I’m wondering why the perfecto was chosen here?
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