Spanish language Q&A Forum

Juan y tú proveísteis

I understand that pronouns can be left out and the subject is determined by the context of the sentence.  I am not very familiar with Castillian, so can "vosotros" be left out in the above sentence and still be grammatically correct?

Hi, can you clarify this question? In my opinion this is a question about something that WILL happen. It seems to me that the situation is that it is already decided that we will go out tonight, so I answered with the indicative:

¿Dónde quieres comer cuando salimos esta noche?

but the correct answer was given as:

¿Dónde quieres comer cuando salgamos esta noche?

Can you explain this a little more? I'm clearly missing some nuance.

Thanks!

The given translation was:

"tienen que ser acreditados por"

and my answer, marked incorrect, was:

"deberían ser acreditados por"

Hola,

Here is my train of thought. "Ayer estuve en un concierto:" "Yesterday" requires the pretérito indefinido because it refers to a completed action at a time in the past, and the verb is estar because it is referring to a location; hence estuve.

However I am stuck with "Fue en San Juan:" Is San Juan not a location? If so, would it require the verb estar rather than ser? 

It would be great if you could explain this.

Many thanks.

My question isn't about demonstrative pronouns but it's in relation to the translation of one of the example sentences describing their usage. 

In the 3rd example sentence which reads, 'Las faldas en esta tienda son bonitas' the English translation given is, 'They have nice skirts in this shop'. I thought that this would translate as, 'The skirts in this shop are nice'. The translation given would be 'Tienen faldas bonitas en esta tienda' in Spanish wouldn't it'? Is it an error here Inma or does it not have to be literal translation?

Gracias

Clara 

Why is there an article in front of frío in the second instance?