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5,621 questions • 8,975 answers • 871,611 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,621 questions • 8,975 answers • 871,611 learners
The confusing part is not se vs le for me but "to" vs "for." Your explanation was that an indirect object means to him/it, etc., but the example is "for him", which is very different in English. I think this needs to be explained. When I speak I usually try to clarify with "para mi" for "for me", but it may not be right.
Tom
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