Spanish language Q&A Forum

This seems like a completed action, or at least a completed period of time:  

Él no veía nada antes de la operación.

Why do we use the imperfect here?

Thanks.

In the quiz asking for “half a sandwich”, I put “la mitad de un bocadillo” instead of “medio bocadillo” and was marked incorrect.  

Is my answer in fact incorrect or just not what the answer was looking for? When we say “half a sandwich” in English, my understanding is that it is really shorthand for “half (of) a sandwich” and so I thought either “la mitad de” or “medio” would be correct - perhaps that is not true in Spanish?  

Thanks in advance for your explanation.

In another unrelated lesson, a quiz sentence states, 'No me queda mucho dinero pero tengo para dos cervezas más.'  Where does this sentence fit in the various meanings of quedar, as explained in this lesson?

Hola,

Is there a reason why "cuento" cannot be used for "story."

My translator says that "cuento" is used for a fictional tale and "historia" is used for a narrative account. I always thought that they were more or less interchangeable.

Kind Regards

John

Could the same sentence be used to refer to the past?

For example:  Anoche fuimos a una fiesta. Después de la fiesta llamamos a un taxi.

Thanks

I don't understand the first example:

                         Lo he visto a él primero, y después a ella.

I understand the 'lo' to match the 'a él', but why doesn't the 'a ella' have a corresponding 'la'?

thanks

You have the same mistake here as I pointed out in the lesson about tener + participio. You refer to it being similar to haber plus infinitive rather than participio