Spanish language Q&A Forum

thank you for this article. I learned many new things.

¡Hola a todos!

Me ha gustado mucho esta lectura, pero quiero dejar un comentario.**

El autor escribe:

"Finalmente, quiero ver el amanecer sobre el Océano Pacífico, en Ciudad de Panamá, y el atardecer en el Océano Atlántico, en Colón."

Nunca he estado en Ciudad de Panamá. Dicho esto, ¿alguien ha visto salir el sol sobre el Océano Pacífico desde la costa oeste de Panamá? O, ¿ha visto ponerse el sol sobre el Atlántico en una playa de Colón?, en la costa este de Panamá?    ;>)

**Utilicé DeepL translator y SpanishChecker para ajustar mi composición. Los errores son míos.

How do I add Spanish accents and upside down question marks when completing written exercises?  My keyboard does not support Spanish language.  

In this sentence:  "Les lazo la pelota y deben apagarla con las dos manos."  

I throw you the ball, and you must stop it with two hands.

I don't understand the use of 'Les" is it referring to 'you"?

In this sentence:  "Les lanzo la pelota y deben apagarla con las dos manos."  

I throw you the ball, and you must stop it with two hands.

I don't understand the use of 'Les" is it referring to 'you"?

Hola

Is the "que" that precedes "han tenido" interchangeable  with quienes or los cuales here ?

Saludos

Kevin

In the answer, the first sentence is future tense, but the second sentence is conditional tense?  What is going on?  Why are not both these sentences either future or conditional?  

To me it seems like such a long process for gustar to become "natural".

I literally have to parse every gustar sentence so that the pronoun tells me who is being liked, the verb then tells who is being liked (not who is doing the liking!):

I know this keeps coming up, but in the examples we see: “las llaves de la casa”, and “la reserva de hotel”. Both these expressions follow the structure of NOUN + DE + NOUN. Why do we only use “la” for the first one?